A 53-year-old woman of white ethnicity comes to the office to discuss the results of her bone density test. She feels well but is very concerned about osteoporotic fractures as her mother passed away at age 81 after sustaining a hip fracture. The patient had menopause at age 50 and currently has no hot flashes or vaginal dryness. She eats a healthy diet and exercises at least 5 days a week with a combination of strength training and aerobic conditioning exercises. Medical history is unremarkable and her only medication is a daily over-the-counter vitamin D3 supplement (800 IU) . She has never been married and has no history of pregnancy. The patient drinks a glass of wine every night and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. In addition to osteoporosis, family history is positive for breast cancer in a maternal aunt. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 25 kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Fasting laboratory and bone mineral density results are as follows:
The 10-year probability of fracture calculated using the fracture assessment tool (FRAX) is 12% and 0.6% for a major osteoporotic fracture and a hip fracture, respectively. Mammogram a year ago was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's low bone density?
A) Reassure and advise no additional therapy at this time
B) Recommend complete cessation of alcohol
C) Start alendronate
D) Start menopausal hormonal therapy
E) Start raloxifene
Correct Answer:
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