A 32-year-old female comes to the physician's office for a follow-up visit. She was recently brought to the emergency department due to head trauma, and the head CT scan performed at that time revealed an abnormal sella. She does not have any significant medical problems. She is currently not on any medications. Her menstrual cycles are regular. She is sexually active with one partner. She does not have any children. Her family history is insignificant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Prolactin, IGF-1, LH, FSH, TSH, and free T4 are within normal limits. Her plasma cortisol is normally suppressed after the administration of 1 mg of dexamethasone. MRI of the pituitary region shows a 5-mm hypo-intense lesion within the pituitary gland, whose architecture is not distorted. The rest of the brain appears normal. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A) Cosyntropin stimulation test
B) Repeat MRI of the pituitary in 6-12 months
C) Measure plasma ACTH
D) Refer this patient for transphenoidal pituitary surgery
E) Start on replacement doses of hydrocortisone
Correct Answer:
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