A 38-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up after recent hospitalization. The patient went to the emergency department 2 weeks ago after several episodes of coffee-ground emesis. She had intermittent, burning, epigastric pain over the past several months prior to hospitalization. At that time, upper gastrointestinal endoscopy revealed a duodenal ulcer, and the patient was discharged on pantoprazole therapy. The patient reports improvement in abdominal pain and has had no further hematemesis, hematochezia, or melena. She has no other medical problems and in the past has taken only ibuprofen for occasional aches and pains. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs and has no allergies. Family history is notable for gastric cancer in her father. Temperature is 36.5 C (97.7 F) , blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is nondistended, soft, and nontender. Gastric and duodenal biopsies performed during the endoscopy show chronic antral gastritis with presence of Helicobacter pylori but no evidence of malignancy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Add amoxicillin and clarithromycin
B) Add bismuth and sucralfate
C) Advise to avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and continue pantoprazole indefinitely
D) Advise to avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and discontinue pantoprazole in 4 weeks
E) Prescribe misoprostol when using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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