A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 0 aborta 2, comes to the office for follow-up after a suction curettage 2 weeks ago for an empty gestational sac. The patient has had light vaginal spotting since the procedure, but no heavy vaginal bleeding or passage of clots. She has had no fever, abdominal pain, or abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. A year ago, she had a left-sided ectopic pregnancy that was treated with methotrexate. She has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Family history is noncontributory. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She has no drug allergies. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) and blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows a nontender, 6-week-sized uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Speculum examination reveals scant dark blood in the vaginal vault but no active bleeding or abnormal discharge. The pathology report indicates hyperplastic and hydropic trophoblastic villi but no fetal tissue, consistent with a hydatidiform mole. In addition to starting contraception, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer methotrexate
B) No additional testing indicated
C) Order chest x-ray
D) Order quantitative β-hCG level
E) Perform transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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