A 22-year-old woman comes to the office in April due to sinus congestion. Three weeks ago, she had subjective fever, myalgia, nasal congestion, sore throat, and dry cough a few days after visiting her sick nephew. Her symptoms initially improved with over-the-counter analgesics and decongestants, but she now has had 2 weeks of purulent nasal discharge, throbbing headache, and facial pain. The patient has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with premeal insulin boluses and an insulin pump for continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion. She also has a history of childhood eczema. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Physical examination shows swollen and erythematous nasal turbinates with yellowish-green nasal secretions. The left maxillary sinus is tender to palpation, with no sinus transillumination. The tympanic membranes and oropharyngeal mucosa are normal. Cervical lymph nodes are not enlarged or tender and lungs are clear to auscultation. Fingerstick blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Admit to the hospital for intravenous antifungal therapy
B) Advise pollen avoidance and glucocorticoid nasal spray
C) Obtain blood cell counts and CT scan of the sinuses
D) Prescribe oral amoxicillin-clavulanate for 5-7 days
E) Reassure and advise continuing symptomatic treatment
Correct Answer:
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