A 24-year-old male veteran comes to the office for evaluation of chronic knee pain. He has no other medical history. He takes naproxen for knee pain due to an old athletic injury and says that he borrowed some oxycodone/acetaminophen from a friend on 2 occasions when the pain was particularly severe. He requests a prescription for pain medication "just in case the pain does not improve. I used to work in construction and I can't be in pain or I won't get a job." The patient has been unable to find steady employment since returning from his last deployment and worries about providing for his wife and 2-year-old son. He discloses that he has been drinking more when he feels depressed and can't sleep. The patient has difficulty both falling and staying asleep and problems concentrating. He feels guilty for not wanting to spend time with his son and for punching a hole in the wall during a recent argument with his wife. His appetite is unchanged and he has no suicidal ideation. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate treatment of depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
B) Obtain permission to speak with the patient's wife to assess for domestic violence
C) Recommend social support programs for veterans in crisis
D) Refer the patient to a substance use rehabilitation program
E) Screen the patient for post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct Answer:
Verified
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