A 57-year-old woman comes to the office due to discomfort in her right hand. She reports that periodically her fingers "feel numb, with some tingling, sort of like they fell asleep." When the patient shakes her hands, normal sensation is partially restored. The symptoms are more often present at night but are occasionally experienced during the daytime as well. She has not had abnormalities of sensation on the dorsal surfaces of her hands, and she reports no shoulder or neck pain. There is no history of injury to the upper extremities. Medical history is notable for irritable bowel syndrome, mitral valve prolapse, degenerative knee arthritis, and hypertension controlled with lisinopril. She also takes an over-the-counter fiber supplement. The patient works as a bookkeeper. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Neurologic examination shows no sensory loss, muscle weakness, or muscle atrophy in the right upper extremity. Provocative testing reproduces the patient's symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's condition?
A) Corticosteroid injection
B) Nighttime wrist splinting
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
D) Surgical decompression
E) Tendon gliding therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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