A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician for her annual health care visit. Her last menstrual period was >1 year ago. She initially had hot flashes which have gradually subsided. Her past medical history is unremarkable. The patient takes no medications, vitamins, or herbal supplements. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her father has premature coronary artery disease. There is no history of cancer or osteoporosis in her family. She jogs and does weight-training exercises for up to 1 hour daily. Her mammogram and pelvic exam were normal last year. The patient's vital signs are normal and her physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Begin hormone replacement therapy
B) Begin raloxifene
C) Encourage calcium and vitamin D intake
D) Order a bone density study
E) Order serum 25-hydroxy vitamin D level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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