A 45-year-old woman comes to the office due to progressive stiffness, pain, and swelling of the joints in the hands and wrists for the past 3 months. The symptoms are worse when she wakes up and gradually improve after several hours. The patient also feels fatigued but has had no skin rashes, oral lesions, or fever. She recently began taking chlorthalidone for hypertension and takes no other medications. She works in a daycare center. The patient drinks alcohol occasionally and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Her mother had "arthritis" in her older age, and her sister has systemic lupus erythematosus. Temperature and other vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows warmth, swelling, and tenderness of the second and third proximal interphalangeal joints, the metacarpophalangeal joints, and the wrists of both hands. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Check Lyme serology and start doxycycline
B) Check parvovirus antibody titers and start acetaminophen
C) Check serum uric acid level and start colchicine
D) Order anti-double-stranded DNA antibody level and start naproxen
E) Order rheumatoid factor and start ibuprofen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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