An 8-year-old boy is brought to the urgent care clinic by his grandmother due to a fever, sore throat, headache, and nausea that began yesterday. His symptoms have worsened and he is now having difficulty swallowing. He is up to date on vaccines and has no chronic medical conditions. The grandmother cares for the child after school while his mother is at work. The boy's father died of leukemia 3 years ago, and his mother is healthy. Temperature is 39.4 C (102.9 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 14/min. Pulse oximetry is 95% on room air. The boy is awake, alert, and in mild discomfort. Examination of the oropharynx reveals pharyngeal erythema and exudate. The uvula is deviated to the right and the left soft palate is depressed downward. The patient has pooled oral secretions but is able to swallow. There is bilateral anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Lung fields are clear to auscultation bilaterally with good air entry. A small peritonsillar abscess is suspected and the proposed plan, including transfer to the hospital for needle aspiration, is discussed with the grandmother. When asked if she has written consent to permit treatment, the grandmother replies that she has never been asked such a question before. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Ask the boy for consent to transfer and treat
B) Ask the grandmother for consent to transfer and treat
C) Call the mother at work to obtain consent to transfer and treat
D) Petition the court for consent to transfer and treat
E) Proceed with transfer without obtaining consent
Correct Answer:
Verified
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