A 32-year-old woman arrives at the clinic complaining of a worsening headache and double vision that has lasted two days. The patient discloses no chronic medical issues but has been experiencing nasal discharge for several days. Physical examination reveals weakness in the muscle seen on the CT scan below:
Purulent discharge from the sphenoethmoidal recess of the nasal cavity is also noted. Involvement of which of the following nerves best explains this patient's ocular findings?
A) Optic nerve
B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
E) Abducens nerve
Correct Answer:
Verified
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