A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks gestation. She feels well and reports experiencing fetal movements. The patient has no medical problems other than a history of cleft lip, which was repaired in childhood. Her husband is healthy, but her previous child was born with spina bifida. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Physical examination is unremarkable and uterine size is in accordance with ultrasound dates. The patient is worried that the fetus may develop the same birth defect as her previous child. Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disorder?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Mitochondrial
D) Multifactorial
E) X-linked recessive
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q3: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q4: A 50-year-old previously healthy man is evaluated
Q5: A 43-year-old man is evaluated for progressive
Q6: A 28-year-old man is evaluated for abnormal
Q7: A study is undertaken to map the
Q9: A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q10: A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q11: A healthy couple, who recently emigrated from
Q12: A 10-year-old boy is brought to the
Q13: In an experiment, cultured fibroblasts are mechanically
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents