A 25-year-old woman comes to the office due to amenorrhea. The patient's last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago, and she normally has regular, monthly menses. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. She takes no daily medications. Blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen with no palpable masses. Pelvic examination shows an 8-week-sized, nontender uterus. Serum B-hCG level is elevated. Which of the following is the most important direct role of hCG in this patient?
A) Induction of prolactin production by the pituitary
B) Inhibition of uterine contractions
C) Initiation of embryonic cell division and differentiation
D) Maintenance of the corpus luteum
E) Promotion and maintenance of embryonic implantation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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