A 26-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a history of lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding which started yesterday. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and she started to have vaginal spotting a few days ago but has had slightly increased bleeding since morning. A urine pregnancy test is positive. A pelvic ultrasound shows a normal appearing uterus with an empty intrauterine cavity and a minimal amount of free pelvic fluid. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Abnormal ovum fertilization by 2 sperm
B) Benign proliferation of the uterine myometrium
C) Endometrial tissue development within the ovary
D) Implantation of a fertilized embryo in the fallopian tube
E) Torsion of an ovarian mass containing ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q807: A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q808: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the
Q809: A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q810: A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes
Q811: A 64-year-old woman comes to her nephrologist
Q812: A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q814: A 68-year-old man comes to the office
Q815: A 34-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the
Q816: A 58-year-old man comes to the office
Q817: A 24-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents