A 45-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss low bone density. The patient was diagnosed with a prolactinoma 4 years ago after she lost her menstrual period for 6 months, but she refused medical or surgical treatments Family history is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show an increased serum prolactin level, a normal TSH level, and an undetectable B-hCG concentration. A DEXA scan shows an osteopenia of her bone. The underlying mechanism for this patient's osteopenia is most likely to cause which of the following additional manifestations?
A) Hand tremors
B) Kidney stones
C) Stomach ulcers
D) Swallowing difficulty
E) Vaginal dryness
Correct Answer:
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