A 44-year-old man visits the office for a check-up on his type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was diagnosed with diabetes four years ago and has been on metformin ever since. Due to suboptimal glycemic control, a new antidiabetic agent was added six months ago. Today, the patient is overjoyed because he has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) without changing his diet or activity since beginning the new therapy. His only symptoms are nausea and vomiting on occasion, as well as a prolonged feeling of fullness after eating. Vital signs are normal, and there are no orthostatic changes. 34 kg/m² is the BMI. Physical examination reveals normal heart and lung sounds, a nontender abdomen, normal deep tendon reflexes, and a normal sensory examination. Normal renal function studies and hemoglobin A1c of 7.2% are revealed by laboratory testing. If this patient's weight loss is due to the new medication, which of the following agents is most likely responsible?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: In response to food intake, intestinal L cells secrete glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) which regulates glucose levels by slowing gastric emptying, suppressing glucagon secretion, and increasing glucose-dependent insulin release. GLP-1 agonists are parenteral diabetes medications that can improve glycemic control while posing little risk of hypoglycemia. Unlike many other diabetes medications, they are also associated with significant weight loss.

A 44-Year-Old Man Visits the Office for a Check-Up on His