A 42-year-old woman is being evaluated because of urinary leakage over the several months. She reports involuntarily losing small amounts of urine after experiencing a sudden need to void. She has difficulty making it to the bathroom in time, these episodes occur almost every day and are very embarrassing. She also has begun to wake up at night to urinate. These symptoms have persisted despite 4 months of bladder training and weight loss, and reducing soda and coffee intake. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urinalysis is within normal limits. The most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient is a drug that has which of the following mechanisms of action?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Urge incontinence is caused by detrusor instability, muscarinic M3 receptor stimulation is responsible for bladder contraction; thus, inhibition leads to improvement of symptoms in patients with urge incontinence. f behavioral therapy alone is unsuccessful, pharmacologic therapy with an antimuscarinic drug can help improve symptoms.

A 42-Year-Old Woman Is Being Evaluated Because of Urinary Leakage