A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician because of left leg swelling that started after a long time flight. A duplex ultrasound of the left leg shows a noncompressible popliteal vein. A drug is prescribed that prolongs activated partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time in a dose-dependent manner but has no effect on thrombin time. Which of the following agents was this patient most likely administered?
A) Cyclooxygenase inhibitor
B) Direct factor VIIa inhibitor
C) Direct factor Xa inhibitor
D) Direct thrombin inhibitor
E) Unfractionated heparin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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