A 43-year-old man arrives at the emergency room with a 3-day history of persistent headaches. The patient has a history of hypertension and has received inadequate medical care. The blood pressure is 224/115 mm Hg, and the pulse rate is 67 beats per minute. During the physical examination, he appears mildly confused, but no focal neurologic deficits are noted. A funduscopy reveals bilateral papilledema. Serum creatinine levels are 1.4 mg/dL. An intravenous medication that causes arteriolar dilation while improving renal perfusion and increasing natriuresis is started. Which of the following agents is most likely being used in this patient?
A) Esmolol
B) Fenoldopam
C) Hydralazine
D) Nitroglycerin
E) Phenylephrine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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