A 40-year-old man is seen in the surgical department due to behavioral changes. He is confused and agitated. Two days ago, he is admitted to the hospital due to acute appendicitis. Today, the patient becomes irritable, severely agitated, and verbally abusive to the nursing staff. The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs but admits to drinking 6-8 beers daily for the last several years. Blood pressure is 165/90 mm Hg and pulse is 115/min. Examination shows hand tremors bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Baclofen
B) Carbamazepine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Haloperidol
E) Chlordiazepoxide
F) Phenobarbital
G) Propranolol
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q433: A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q434: A 53-year-old man arrives at the emergency
Q435: A 35-year-old woman comes to the office
Q436: Seven days after undergoing bilateral total knee
Q437: A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency
Q439: Three weeks after starting a new medication
Q440: A 60-year-old man with known coronary artery
Q441: A 6-year-old boy is brought to the
Q442: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0,
Q443: Exertional angina is diagnosed in a 60-year-old
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents