A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his mother 20 minutes after being discovered unconscious at home. On arrival, he is unresponsive to painful stimuli. His pulse is 65/min, respirations are 8/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 75%. There was an empty bottle of hydrocodone-acetaminophen next to him, but she does not know how many pills were in it. A1 dose of intravenous naloxone is administered, and his vital signs, including respirations, are improved. One hour later, he has worsening lethargy, bradypnea, and miosis. Which of the following most likely accounts for this patient's current clinical deterioration?
A) Acetaminophen-induced liver failure
B) Coingestion of benzodiazepine
C) Incomplete CNS penetrance of naloxone
D) Partial agonistic effect of naloxone
E) Short half-life of naloxone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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