A 16-year-old male presents to your office with his mother for a second opinion. He states that after having several occurrences of rectal bleeding, his primary care provider ordered a colonoscopy. The colonoscopy revealed no polyps. At a follow-up visit the primary care provider ordered genetic screening for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), which showed no mutation in APC gene. Which of the following statements best represent the patient's risk of developing FAP?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Although this patient has no mutation in the APC gene, his risk for developing FAP remains the same as any other male with no known family history or known APC mutations. These findings do not indicate that he has no risk of developing FAP.

A 16-Year-Old Male Presents to Your Office with His Mother