A 26-year-old telephone operator comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. This is her first pregnancy. Her last period was about 2 months ago. She has no current complaints. She is eating healthily, taking vitamins, and exercising. She has a past medical history of an appendectomy as a teenager. Her mother had three children vaginally with no complications. On examination she appears healthy and her vital signs are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, thyroid, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. By speculum examination, her cervix appears bluish in color and highly vascular. A bimanual examination reveals a soft cervix and a 12-week-sized uterus. No masses are felt in either adnexal area. Results of her Pap, cultures, and blood work are pending. What clinical sign is responsible for her blue, highly vascular cervix?
A) Chadwick's sign
B) Hegar's sign
C) Leopold's sign
D) Leo's sign
Correct Answer:
Verified
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