A function f that is defined on [-1, 3] with $f ( - 1 ) = f ( 3 ) = 2$ such that f is continuous everywhere, differentiable everywhere except at $x = 1$ but fails the conclusion of Rolle's Theorem. Explain why it doesn't satisfy the Rolle's Theorem?

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The Answer of A function f that is defined on [-1, 3] with $f ( - 1 ) = f ( 3 ) = 2$ such that f is continuous everywhere, differentiable everywhere except at $x = 1$ but fails the conclusion of Rolle's Theorem. Explain why it doesn't satisfy the Rolle's Theorem?

A Function F That Is Defined on [-1, 3] With f