A 38 year old woman is seen by her GP for increasing pelvic pain and abnormal uterine bleeding.The GP palpates several firm masses in the uterus.The patient is referred to a gynaecologist who recommends and eventually performs a vaginal hysterectomy.A representative section of the uterus is shown in the accompanying photomicrograph.Which one of the following is the best diagnosis?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The intramuscular tumour "T" is typical of leiomyomas.The margins are smooth,and the cellularity is low,when compared to leiomyosarcomas.Necrosis is absent.

A 38 Year Old Woman Is Seen by Her GP