The segmented markets theory
A) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the demand for long-term bonds being high relative to the demand for short-term bonds.
B) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the demand for long-term bonds being low relative to the demand for short-term bonds.
C) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the favorable tax treatment of long-term bonds.
D) is unable to account for upward-sloping yield curves.
Correct Answer:
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