Suppose an analyst attempts to estimate a consumer's willingness to pay for a policy that lowers the price of childcare by measuring the amount of income that can be taken away from the consumer (at the new price)such that they can just afford their original bundle of goods.Is this correct? If not,is it more or less than the true compensating variation? Explain with a graph.

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The Answer of Suppose an analyst attempts to estimate a consumer's willingness to pay for a policy that lowers the price of childcare by measuring the amount of income that can be taken away from the consumer (at the new price)such that they can just afford their original bundle of goods.Is this correct? If not,is it more or less than the true compensating variation? Explain with a graph.

Suppose an Analyst Attempts to Estimate a Consumer's Willingness to Pay