An 81-year-old patient with heart failure comes into the emergency room accompanied by his daughter.The daughter reports that her father "banged his head" as he was getting out of the car 4 days ago.He did not complain of headache pain,so she did not obtain medical advice.She reports that she noticed a mild facial droop,slurring of speech,and gait disturbance in her father today.She reports that her father takes Coumadin,digoxin,and an ACE inhibitor.On physical examination,there is decreased right hand grip 2/5 strength and decreased right quadriceps strength 2/ 5 compared to the left side 5/5.CT scan shows an intracranial bleed.Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The patient's symptoms and history suggest a subdural hematoma, which is common in elderly patients, especially those on anticoagulation like Coumadin, after a minor head trauma. The gradual onset of neurological symptoms over days aligns with a subdural hematoma.

An 81-Year-Old Patient with Heart Failure Comes into the Emergency