Deck 20: Gastrointestinal Diseases

Question 1

During an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease, if the patient can tolerate an oral diet, the diet should be:

A) high-fiber, high-protein, with plenty of fluids.
B) low-gluten and low-lactose.
C) enteral feedings with enzyme replacements.
D) low-fat, low-residue, high-protein, high-calorie, small, frequent meals.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Peptic ulcers occur most frequently in the:

A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) esophagus.
D) ileum.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Inflammatory bowel disease that is confined to the colon and rectum is known as:

A) celiac sprue.
B) Crohn's disease.
C) ulcerative colitis.
D) diverticular disease.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

When mouth tissues become inflamed, initial nutritional recommendations include:

A) citrus juices high in vitamin
B) high-protein, high-kilocalorie liquids.
C) low-sodium, low-sugar foods.
D) hot soups and beverages.

Question 5

A basic principle guiding nutritional management of peptic ulcer disease is to eat:

A) a well-balanced diet as tolerated.
B) foods high in protein, low in fiber, and with no seasonings.
C) no more than three meals per day with liquids between meals.
D) soft foods, low in refined carbohydrates and fat.

Question 6

A characteristic symptom of a peptic ulcer is:

A) steatorrhea after meals.
B) constant diarrhea.
C) abdominal pain between meals.
D) gradual weight loss.

Question 7

Diagnosis of celiac disease is confirmed using:

A) x-ray examination.
B) intestinal biopsy.
C) skin testing.
D) blood tests for antibodies.

Question 8

Peptic ulcer disease may be caused by:

A) eating highly spiced foods.
B) Helicobacter pylori infection.
C) excess secretion of gastric acid and pepsin.
D) excess secretion of bile.

Question 9

Malignancy is a common development in patients with:

A) gastric ulcer.
B) duodenal ulcer.
C) esophageal ulcer.
D) ileal ulcer.

Question 10

A good meal for someone with xerostomia would be:

A) stew, mashed potatoes, and pudding.
B) sandwich, pretzels, and an apple.
C) tacos and cookies.
D) baked chicken, broccoli, and rice.

Question 11

During remission, patients with Crohn's disease are encouraged to increase their intake of:

A) fat.
B) antioxidants.
C) vitamin supplements.
D) foods high in oxalate.

Question 12

Cystic fibrosis is a disease that primarily affects the:

A) pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and small intestine.
B) brain, lungs, heart, and stomach.
C) pancreas, intestinal tract, sweat glands, and lungs.
D) colon, joints, sweat glands, and heart.

Question 13

The medical term for difficulty in swallowing is:

A) pyrosis.
B) polydipsia.
C) dysphagia.
D) dyspepsia.

Question 14

For a client who has achalasia, the diet of choice is:

A) enteral tube feeding.
B) a normal well-balanced diet.
C) low in fat and high in protein.
D) nutrient-dense liquids and semisolid foods.

Question 15

People who have peptic ulcer disease are encouraged to avoid drinking:

A) water.
B) fruit-flavored soft drinks.
C) apricot nectar.
D) tea and coffee.

Question 16

Level I routine care of patients with cystic fibrosis includes:

A) enzyme replacement and vitamin supplements.
B) use of energy-dense nutrient supplements.
C) use of enteral nutrition support.
D) drugs to stimulate enzyme production.

Question 17

The term pyrosis means:

A) vomiting.
B) tissue erosion.
C) intestinal pain.
D) heartburn.

Question 18

Grains that should be eliminated from the diets of clients on a restricted gluten diet include:

A) rye, rice, and wheat.
B) corn, oats, and barley.
C) rice, barley, and corn.
D) wheat, rye, and barley.

Question 19

The chronic inflammatory bowel disease that involves all layers of the intestinal wall is known as:

A) celiac disease.
B) Crohn's disease.
C) ulcerative colitis.
D) diverticulitis.

Question 20

The patient most likely to develop a hiatal hernia is:

A) a woman with bulimia nervosa.
B) a pregnant woman.
C) an obese man.
D) an underweight man.

Question 21

The primary objective of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy is to:

A) encourage the client to eat.
B) rest the liver.
C) remove sources of excess ammonia.
D) encourage the client to maintain mental functions.

Question 22

Patients with short-bowel syndrome usually need parenteral nutrition support only until:

A) they heal from surgery.
B) their nutritional status is adequate.
C) they receive a bowel transplant.
D) their remaining small intestine adapts.

Question 23

The amount of protein that should be consumed by a client who has viral hepatitis is:

A) 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg body weight.
B) 1.0 to 1.2 g/kg body weight.
C) 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg body weight.
D) 1.5 to 2.0 g/kg body weight.

Question 24

A key component in the etiology of hepatic encephalopathy is:

A) fatty infiltration of the liver.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) high ammonia levels in the systemic circulation.
D) reduced blood flow to the brain.

Question 25

The small outpouchings that protrude from the intestinal lumen are called:

A) hernias.
B) lesions.
C) diverticula.
D) ulcers.

Question 26

The type of diet prescribed for long-term management of diverticular disease is:

A) bland.
B) low in fiber.
C) high in fiber.
D) soft.

Question 27

In patients with viral hepatitis, the major barrier to adequate nutritional intake is:

A) anorexia.
B) diarrhea.
C) malabsorption.
D) pain after eating.

Question 28

Adequate dietary protein is essential for recovery from hepatitis because protein:

A) is needed for liver cell regeneration.
B) is needed to produce energy.
C) restores liver glycogen reserves.
D) helps to preserve adipose tissue.

Question 29

Pathologic changes in the liver caused by cirrhosis include:

A) cellular hyperplasia.
B) calcification.
C) cell mutations.
D) fatty infiltration.

Question 30

Dietary changes that help reduce the incidence of constipation include:

A) using laxatives.
B) decreasing fat intake.
C) increasing fluid intake.
D) increasing protein intake.

Question 31

Medical treatment of hepatitis includes:

A) decreased protein intake.
B) antibiotics.
C) use of branched-chain amino acids.
D) bed rest and optimal nutrition.

Question 32

If diverticula of the large intestine become inflamed, the condition is called:

A) diverticulosis.
B) diverticulitis.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) Crohn's disease.

Question 33

Nutrition support for the client who has cirrhosis includes a:

A) low-sodium, high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
B) soft-texture, low-energy, high-fluid diet.
C) high-protein, high-carbohydrate, high-fat diet.
D) low-sodium, soft-texture, high-energy diet.

Question 34

The earliest clinical manifestations of cirrhosis include:

A) jaundice and weakness.
B) nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding and anemia.
D) ascites and edema.

Question 35

Clinical signs of hepatic encephalopathy include:

A) gastrointestinal problems.
B) confusion and impaired motor function.
C) urinary shutdown.
D) cardiac failure.

Question 36

One effect of impaired blood circulation through the liver caused by fibrous tissue is the development of:

A) hepatitis.
B) vomiting.
C) cholecystitis.
D) portal hypertension.

Question 37

Development of ascites in clients who have cirrhosis is related to:

A) protein deficiency.
B) excess fat intake.
C) iron deficiency.
D) excess intake of sodium.

Question 38

A major clinical symptom associated with hepatitis is:

A) jaundice.
B) slurred speech.
C) diarrhea.
D) impaired motor function.

Question 39

An appropriate meal for someone with celiac disease would be:

A) roasted chicken with rice and broccoli.
B) turkey sandwich with an apple.
C) macaroni and cheese with carrots.
D) chicken pot pie with peas.

Question 40

Patients with cystic fibrosis need extra:

A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) magnesium.
D) iron.

Question 41

The initial diet prescription for clients who have acute pancreatitis is:

A) small, frequent meals.
B) to withhold oral feedings.
C) enteral formula feedings.
D) a clear liquid diet.

Question 42

A characteristic clinical symptom of gallbladder inflammation or gallstones is:

A) pain after eating.
B) jaundice.
C) anorexia.
D) weakness and apathy.

Question 43

Nonsurgical treatment for gallstones may include:

A) antibiotic therapy.
B) a low-cholesterol diet.
C) chemical dissolution of gallstones.
D) drugs to relax the bile duct.

Question 44

The gallbladder is stimulated to contract and release bile by:

A) glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide.
B) the cholecystokinin mechanism.
C) high serum triglyceride levels.
D) secretion of pancreatic enzymes.

Question 45

Drugs used to control blood ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy are:

A) diuretics and chelating agents.
B) corticosteroids and cimetidine.
C) tetracycline and antacids.
D) lactulose and neomycin.

Question 46

Nutrition therapy for clients who have gallbladder disorders focuses on:

A) reducing cholesterol intake.
B) eliminating gas-forming foods.
C) reducing fat intake.
D) increasing caloric intake.

Question 47

Inflammation of the gallbladder is called:

A) cholecystitis.
B) cholelithiasis.
C) cholecystectomy.
D) cholecalciferol.

Question 48

The recommended plan of nutrition therapy for clients who have hepatic encephalopathy is a:

A) high-protein and low-fat diet.
B) high-fluid and high-fiber diet.
C) high fat and high-energy diet.
D) restricted protein and moderately high-energy diet.

Question 49

Gallstone formation is promoted by:

A) high fat intake.
B) high cholesterol intake.
C) low carbohydrate intake.
D) low protein intake.

Question 50

Factors responsible for development of acute pancreatitis include:

A) weight gain.
B) viral infections.
C) obesity.
D) alcohol abuse.

Question 51

The presence of gallstones in the gallbladder is called:

A) cholecystitis.
B) cholelithiasis.
C) cholecalciferol.
D) cholecystectomy.