Deck 14: Clinical Massage: Pain, Trigger Points, Fascia, Orthopedic Assessments, and Applications Methods

Question 1

Which concept involves synthesis of perception, emotional states, and past experiences?

A) Trigger point theory
B) Central sensitization
C) Body-self neuromatrix
D) Gate control theory

Answer 1

C
Explanation: According to Melzack, pain is one of several expressions or outputs produced by a cerebral network called the body-self neuromatrix after synthesizing various inputs including perceptions, emotional states, and past experiences.

Question 2

Which term is given to pain generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation?

A) Neuropathic
B) Persistent
C) Acute
D) Chronic

Answer 2

A
Explanation: Neuropathic pain is generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation.

Question 3

Which documentation does an insurance company require to process claims?

A) Professional liability certificate
B) Diagnostic code
C) Profit and loss statement
D) Medical release

Answer 3

B
Explanation: Insurance companies require diagnostic codes and procedural codes to process insurance claims.

Question 4

Which term refers to the minimum intensity of a stimulus perceived as painful?

A) Sensitization
B) Threshold
C) Tolerance level
D) Sympathetic arousal

Question 5

Which term is given to pain that outlasts the typical healing time of involved tissues?

A) Acute
B) Chronic
C) Perceptual
D) Centralized

Question 6

Which term means the brain's ability to change, remodel, and reorganize itself to improve adaptability?

A) Meta-analysis
B) Neuroplasticity
C) Algorithm neurology
D) Self-fulfilling prophecy

Question 7

Insurance companies are most likely to cover massage treatments received for which situation?

A) Soreness from recreational activities
B) Stress from busy lifestyle
C) Cellulite removal
D) Personal injury

Question 8

Which term means a tender localized hardening that lies in a palpable taut band within a skeletal muscle?

A) Reflex point
B) Trigger point
C) Muscle spasm
D) Muscle soreness

Question 9

Which term means stimuli that are damaging or threaten damage to normal tissues?

A) Modulation
B) Nociception
C) Contraction
D) Rehabilitation

Question 10

Which phenomenon occurs with increased nociceptor responsiveness and reduced threshold?

A) Tolerance level
B) Acute awareness
C) Threshold
D) Sensitization

Question 11

Which theory states that pain is a response or output determined by how the brain interprets incoming information or input?

A) Trigger point
B) Sliding filament
C) Gate control
D) Neuromatrix

Question 12

Which term is given to pain felt in an area of the body other than its source or site of origin?

A) Referred
B) Latent
C) Acute
D) Chronic

Question 13

Which term means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage?

A) Pain
B) Psychosis
C) Rehabilitation
D) Assessment

Question 14

Which term refers to the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus an individual is willing to accept in any given situation?

A) Tolerance level
B) Sensitization
C) Threshold
D) Parasympathetic arousal

Question 15

What does maximum medical improvement mean?

A) The client's treatment has just started working
B) The client's condition is unlikely to improve
C) A standard the client wishes to reach
D) A standard the physician wishes the client would reach

Question 16

Which term is used to describe a trigger point that causes pain when compressed that the client recognizes as familiar?

A) Latent
B) Active
C) Limited
D) Antagonist

Question 17

Who proposed the gate control theory of pain?

A) Einstein
B) Descartes
C) Melzack and Wall
D) Watson and Crick

Question 18

Which term is used to describe a trigger point that is nonpainful until compressed, and the client is unfamiliar with the resulting pain?

A) Latent
B) Active
C) Limited
D) Antagonistic

Question 19

Which term refers to restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition after a disabling disease or injury?

A) Orthopedics
B) Remission
C) Physical rehabilitation
D) Maximum medical improvement

Question 20

Which term means the use of techniques to safely work with clients who have diseases, disorders, or injuries?

A) Reflexology
B) Shiatsu
C) Lymphatic massage
D) Clinical massage

Question 21

Which orthopedic test attempts to determine possible cervical root compression?

A) Empty Can
B) Spurling
C) Apley Scratch
D) Thompson

Question 22

Which lateral landmark is used in static postural assessment?

A) Nasal septum
B) Occipital protuberance
C) Greater trochanter of the femur
D) Anterior superior iliac spines

Question 23

Which term means an abnormal sensation, either spontaneous or provoked?

A) Origin
B) Plexus
C) Paresthesia
D) Innervation

Question 24

Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist guides the movement in the same direction?

A) Active
B) Passive
C) Active resisted
D) Active assisted

Question 25

Which neurotransmitter is involved in trigger point formation?

A) Epinephrine
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine

Question 26

The FABER test assesses pathology in which joint?

A) Elbow
B) Knee
C) Shoulder
D) Sacroiliac

Question 27

Which statement describes gait?

A) An individual's manner of walking or running
B) How the body positions itself over a base of support
C) Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance
D) Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort

Question 28

Which factor is used to determine the amount of symmetry on both sides of the client?

A) Line of gravity
B) Gait
C) Compensatory pattern
D) Phasic muscles

Question 29

Which group of muscles tend to shorten and strengthen?

A) Postural
B) Phasic
C) Core
D) Compensatory

Question 30

Which term means sheets of fibrous tissues enveloping the body beneath the skin, and enclosing and compartmentalizing muscle tissue layers and muscle groups?

A) Adipose
B) Membranes
C) Fascia
D) Tendons

Question 31

Which term refers to the quality of resistance felt by the evaluator at the end of a client's passive range of motion?

A) End-feel
B) Compensatory pattern
C) Gait
D) Mobilization

Question 32

Which term means conscious or unconscious ways of moving used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort?

A) Posture
B) Gait
C) Compensatory patterns
D) Systematic desensitization

Question 33

Which term refers to fascia's ability to move from a sol to a gel state, and back again?

A) Torquing
B) Spasming
C) Thixotropy
D) Conditioning

Question 34

Which phenomenon is a brisk contraction elicited by snapping palpation of a trigger point?

A) Jump sign
B) Local twitch response
C) Referred pain phenomena
D) Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Question 35

The Full Can/Empty Can Tests may identify dysfunction in which muscle?

A) Infraspinatus
B) Deltoid
C) Supraspinatus
D) Coracobrachialis

Question 36

Which posterior landmark is used in static postural assessment?

A) Nasal septum
B) Occipital protuberance
C) Manubrium of the sternum
D) Anterior superior iliac spines

Question 37

Which test measures shoulder mobility?

A) Apley Scratch
B) Spurling
C) Thompson
D) Full Can/Empty Can

Question 38

Which factor is used to establish a client's health status, identify treatment goals, and determine how these goals are best accomplished?

A) Technique
B) Assessment
C) Documentation
D) Implementation

Question 39

Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist opposes it?

A) Active
B) Passive
C) Active resisted
D) Active assisted

Question 40

What is the definition of posture?

A) The manner in which a person moves on foot
B) The position of the body over a base of support
C) Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance
D) Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort

Question 41

Which method involves passively stretching a muscle then having it isometrically contract against resistance?

A) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
B) Myofascial release
C) Positional release therapy
D) Strain-counterstrain

Question 42

In the acronym TART, what does A stand for?

A) Active
B) Alignment
C) Assessment
D) Asymmetry

Question 43

Which term means a repetitive pattern that begins when one foot contacts the ground and ends when the same foot contacts the ground again?

A) Gait cycle
B) Static posture
C) Compensatory pattern
D) Maximum improvement

Question 44

During the stance period of the gait cycle, what percentage of time is the foot in contact with the ground?

A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%

Question 45

Which method of addressing trigger points involves pressing so that the skin blanches?

A) Transverse friction
B) Ischemic compression
C) Dry needling
D) Strain counterstrain

Question 46

Which method involves the client actively contracting against a counterforce?

A) Muscle energy techniques
B) Myofascial release
C) Positional release therapy
D) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

Question 47

Which technique is used to release restricted tissues in myofascial release?

A) Gliding
B) Compression
C) Friction
D) Stretching

Question 48

What is the purpose of placing glass or silicone cups on the skin in cupping therapy?

A) Perform ischemic compression
B) Create suction
C) Glide along tissues
D) Stretch fascia

Question 49

How long is compression or transverse friction typically applied to a trigger point?

A) 5 to 10 seconds
B) 10 to 20 seconds
C) 20 to 30 seconds
D) 35 to 45 seconds

Question 50

Which method uses the concept of "position of ease?"

A) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
B) Muscle energy techniques
C) Strain-counterstrain
D) Cupping