Deck 6: Staying Healthy: Primary Prevention and Positive Psychology

Question 1

Compare and contrast the health belief model, the theory of planned behavior, and the transtheoretical model as they apply to health behaviors. In your answer, be sure to explain the basic assumptions and concepts of each model and evaluate the success of each in predicting adoption or cessation of intended health behaviors.

Answer 1

not answered

Question 2

The major finding of the Alameda Health Study was that:

A) men who regularly practiced seven particular health habits had lower mortality rates than those who practiced few or none of these habits.
B) people who become too obsessive in their health behaviors have higher morbidity rates than their more moderate counterparts.
C) people who become too obsessive in their health behaviors have higher mortality rates than their more moderate counterparts.
D) women who ate breakfast and slept for at least seven hours per night were able to mediate the negative effects of smoking.

Answer 2

men who regularly practiced seven particular health habits had lower mortality rates than those who practiced few or none of these habits.

Question 3

Define the three types of preventive interventions mentioned in the text, and describe which type is conceptually the most cost-effective, which is conceptually the most beneficial to the patient, and which is the most widely practiced in Western medicine.

Answer 3

not answered

Question 4

Health behaviors are:

A) health-compromising behaviors or habits.
B) health-enhancing behaviors or habits.
C) loss-framed health messages.
D) gain-framed health messages.

Question 5

According to the health belief model, a man who believes that cancer is a fatal illness and that no good treatment exists for it, and who lives in a community with a relatively low cancer rate will take what action when he finds a lump in his testicle?

A) He will immediately make an appointment with his doctor.
B) He will probably not seek treatment.
C) He will call a friend for advice.
D) It is impossible to predict what he will do.

Question 6

Which theory emphasizes the importance of a perceived susceptibility to a health threat, the perceived severity of the threat, and the perceived benefits of treatment?

A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) prototype/willingness theory
D) transtheoretical model

Question 7

Describe several widely used and empirically supported cognitive-behavioral interventions for promoting health behaviors.

Question 8

Use a specific example to discuss the pros and cons of fear appeals as effective and meaningful interventions to change health attitudes and behaviors. Under what specific circumstances are fear appeals likely to be most effective in creating change?

Question 9

Differentiate health behaviors and health-risk behaviors, and briefly describe the major findings of the Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System (YRBSS) project.

Question 10

Discuss in detail the interrelationships among the concepts of perceived control, self-efficacy, and health.

Question 11

According to the theory of planned behavior, the best way to predict whether a health behavior will occur is to measure a person's:

A) subjective norm.
B) perceived behavioral control.
C) behavioral intention.
D) past behavior.

Question 12

Use an example to explain the concept of allostasis and its relationship to neuroendocrine health.

Question 13

The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System project identified each of these health-risk behaviors as ones that put young people at risk for premature death and illness EXCEPT:

A) not using proven medical methods for diagnosing disease early.
B) abusing alcohol or other drugs.
C) engaging in violent behavior.
D) irregular sleep habits.

Question 14

Educational interventions aimed at changing health beliefs:

A) have not proven to be very successful.
B) are more effective when aimed at people with high socioeconomic status.
C) are more effective with women than with men.
D) are effective in increasing health-protective behaviors.

Question 15

Discuss the basic principles involved in creating health education campaigns that are meant to promote good health. In your answer, be sure to include an explanation that clearly supports or refutes claims that such campaigns are effective in significantly changing health attitudes and behaviors long term.

Question 16

Research on the relationship between attitudes and behavior has shown:

A) no connection between the two.
B) a connection between attitudes and behavior.
C) that people do not always do what they say they intend to do.
D) that attitudes are more likely to predict behavior when they are based on direct experience.

Question 17

Because he lives in the fraternity house, Carl finds it hard to eat a low-fat diet since his housemates think such a diet is unmanly. According to the theory of planned behavior, Carl's interpretation of his fraternity brothers' views and his failure to eat what he knows is a healthier diet is being influenced by:

A) perceived benefits.
B) feelings of invulnerability.
C) behavioral willingness.
D) the subjective norm.

Question 18

Which theory of health behavior emphasizes the importance of perceived behavioral control in attitude formation and behavior change?

A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) precede/proceed model
D) transtheoretical model

Question 19

Discuss the concept of thriving and identify psychosocial factors that have been posited to be linked to enhanced immunity in response to stress.

Question 20

One shortcoming of the health belief model is that it:

A) ignores the importance of perceived barriers to being able to practice a health behavior.
B) does not take into account advice from friends and other cues to action.
C) does not take into account the perceived benefits and barriers of treatment.
D) has not been widely tested in research studies.

Question 21

Which of these family variables has NOT been linked with risky health-related behaviors among adolescents?

A) parental conflict
B) absence of parental supervision
C) parental drug and alcohol use
D) single parenthood

Question 22

Primary prevention refers to measures designed to:

A) prevent illness from developing.
B) manage symptoms of illness that have already begun to occur.
C) minimize the damage of a chronic disease.
D) identify an illness early in its course.

Question 23

Maturing out refers to the:

A) decline in heavy drinking among college students as they grow older.
B) tendency of younger adolescents to imitate the health behaviors of older, admired peers.
C) new trend of highly stressed workers electing to take early retirement.
D) decline in the rate of accidental injuries as children grow older.

Question 24

Morbidity refers to a state of being:

A) disabled.
B) ill.
C) in pain.
D) disabled, ill, or in pain.

Question 25

A health message that focuses on a negative outcome from not performing a health-promoting behavior is a(n) ______ message.

A) gain-framed
B) loss-framed
C) approach-oriented
D) avoidance-oriented

Question 26

Most people in the United States who do not have health insurance:

A) come from families living below the federal poverty level.
B) come from working families with incomes above the federal poverty level.
C) are elderly, retired adults.
D) can afford to buy insurance but choose not to.

Question 27

Because he has high blood pressure, Jake watches his diet and takes antihypertension medication. These behaviors are examples of ______ prevention.

A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary

Question 28

The most widely used health education model is the:

A) health belief model.
B) theory of planned behavior.
C) transtheoretical model.
D) precede/proceed model.

Question 29

Tailored messaging refers to health messages that are:

A) designed according to the individual characteristics of participants.
B) approach-oriented rather than avoidance-oriented.
C) avoidance-oriented rather than approach-oriented.
D) designed as "one size fits all" communications.

Question 30

Which statement is NOT true of people who do not have health insurance (compared with those who do)?

A) They receive about one-half the medical care.
B) They are likely to die at a younger age.
C) They are more likely to be diagnosed at later stages of illness.
D) They are more often women than men.

Question 31

Which statement is NOT true regarding tertiary prevention?

A) It is more cost-effective than primary prevention.
B) It is less beneficial than secondary prevention.
C) It is the most common form of health care.
D) Medical schools traditionally have focused on teaching it.

Question 32

Community-based interventions:

A) work best when they are multifaceted rather than single-shot campaigns.
B) are generally less effective than interventions aimed at the individual.
C) are difficult to promote due to a lack of evidence that links rates of mortality and morbidity to social conditions such as poverty.
D) are on the decline due to economic issues.

Question 33

Loss-framed messages are particularly effective with people who are:

A) avoidance oriented.
B) approach oriented.
C) young.
D) old.

Question 34

Dennis has just heard a public service message on the hazards of smoking. He is most likely to quit smoking as the result of this campaign if he:

A) has been smoking for a long time.
B) has tried to quit several times in the past.
C) believes that he can perform those behaviors that are necessary to quitting.
D) has been smoking only a short time.

Question 35

The adult offspring of problem drinkers are:

A) themselves at increased risk of abusing alcohol.
B) at no greater risk of abusing alcohol than children whose parents do not abuse alcohol.
C) seemingly unaffected by alcohol's gradient of reinforcement.
D) have a lower threshold for intoxication than others.

Question 36

Wearing a seat belt is to ______ prevention as taking chemotherapy to treat a cancerous tumor is to ______ prevention.

A) primary; tertiary
B) primary; secondary
C) secondary; tertiary
D) tertiary; secondary

Question 37

Research on those individuals who are insured and uninsured since the passage of the Affordable Care Act in 2014 has uncovered some interesting trends. Which statement is true regarding the data collected?

A) People of color have a lower risk of being uninsured as compared to non-Hispanic Whites.
B) Illegal immigrants represent the largest portion of uninsured individuals.
C) Most uninsured individuals come from working families.
D) People in the South and the West are least likely to lack insurance coverage.

Question 38

Which theory contends that people pass through the stages of precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance when altering health-related behaviors?

A) health belief model
B) precede/proceed model
C) theory of planned behavior
D) transtheoretical model

Question 39

Which theory of health behavior has the practical advantage of allowing health psychologists to match an intervention to the specific needs of each person?

A) health belief model
B) theory of planned behavior
C) transtheoretical model
D) theory of reasoned action

Question 40

Which statement is true about fear appeals?

A) Greater levels of fear promote greater attitude change.
B) High levels of fear can actually backfire and lead to less adherence.
C) Fear appeals are most effective in changing the attitudes of people who perceive low self-efficacy for the behavior in question.
D) Fear appeals are more effective with men than with women.

Question 41

Anabolic reactions involve activities that:

A) break down the body.
B) build the body.
C) help the body quickly mobilize energy.
D) promote arousal.

Question 42

After having an argument at work, Jack becomes impatient with his son's behavior at the dinner table. Jack's behavior is an example of:

A) an interaction effect.
B) social withdrawal.
C) negative emotion spillover.
D) avoidance.

Question 43

An environmental signal that indicates that certain behaviors will be followed by reinforcement is a:

A) contingency stimulus.
B) loss-framed message.
C) discriminative stimulus.
D) gain-framed message.

Question 44

Kendra wants to cut down on the number of soft drinks in her diet. Her plan begins with a week of careful record-keeping in which she counts the number of soft drinks she consumes each day. This is an example of:

A) operant reinforcement.
B) stimulus control.
C) self-monitoring.
D) aversion therapy.

Question 45

After an especially stressful day at work, Connie isn't interested in talking to her family; she just wants to be by herself. Her behavior is an example of:

A) an interaction effect.
B) social withdrawal.
C) negative emotion spillover.
D) avoidance.

Question 46

The positive psychology movement:

A) is a strength-based, preventive approach to health behavior research and intervention.
B) is not endorsed by the American Psychological Association.
C) maintains that adversity only rarely yields benefits.
D) emphasizes tertiary prevention.

Question 47

Despite growing up in poverty and having a childhood characterized by extreme adversity, Rosa has lived an exceptional life filled with success and well-being in every domain. Rosa exemplifies the outcome called:

A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) allostatic load.
D) thriving.

Question 48

Discriminative stimuli are:

A) environmental signals that certain behaviors will be followed by reinforcement.
B) voluntary behaviors that "operate" on the environment.
C) delayed events that acquire reinforcing power by association.
D) the events that immediately follow operant behaviors.

Question 49

The ______ protects some workers' jobs as they care for new babies or sick family members.

A) Affordable Care Act
B) Family and Medical Leave Act
C) National Family Health Act
D) Healthy People 2010

Question 50

Anabolism is to catabolism as:

A) bodybuilding activities are to activities that break down the body.
B) activities that break down the body are to bodybuilding activities.
C) immunosuppression is to immune enhancement.
D) immune enhancement is to immunosuppression.

Question 51

Loss-framed messages are particularly effective in promoting ______ behaviors, whereas gain-framed messages are particularly effective in promoting ______ behaviors.

A) detection; prevention
B) prevention; detection
C) health screening; compliance
D) compliance; health screening

Question 52

Gary has been diagnosed with pre-diabetes and his dietician has suggested that he reduce the number of sugary snacks he consumes each day. To reduce his temptation to buy and consume these snacks Gary starts shopping at a local farmer's market and subscribes to a healthy eating blog. Gary's behavior demonstrates principles of a:

A) stimulus-control intervention.
B) contingency contract.
C) relapse prevention program.
D) self-monitoring program.

Question 53

Marsha runs two miles every day after work, rain or shine. When her coworker asks her why she runs on rainy days Marsha says running reduces her level of stress. Marsha maintains her running habit by using:

A) gain-framed messaging.
B) loss framed messaging.
C) a self-monitoring program.
D) a contingency contract.

Question 54

Negative emotion spillover and social withdrawal are examples of:

A) interaction effects.
B) main effects.
C) allostasis.
D) cross-over effects.

Question 55

Which statement is NOT true of catabolic reactions?

A) They are characterized by the release of catecholamines.
B) They break down tissues to be converted to energy.
C) They are characterized by the release of cortisol and other "fight-or-flight" hormones.
D) They build the body.

Question 56

Which term refers to the body's ability to adapt to stress and to other elements of rapidly changing environments?

A) anabolism
B) catabolism
C) allostasis
D) resilience

Question 57

A healthy work culture is one in which employees pay attention to:

A) individual and group performance.
B) equipment, management systems, and workplace design.
C) biology, cognition, and experiences.
D) the people, the environment, and behaviors.

Question 58

Many health behaviors are voluntary and would be classified as:

A) operant behaviors.
B) respondent behaviors.
C) Pavlovian behaviors.
D) discriminative behaviors.

Question 59

Which type of intervention focuses on the conditions that elicit health behaviors and the factors that help maintain and reinforce them?

A) cognitive interventions
B) self-monitoring interventions
C) aversion therapy
D) cognitive-behavioral interventions

Question 60

Sonya suffers from chronic pancreatitis. Her doctor asks her to lower her intake of fatty foods and to record how she feels after eating to learn which foods trigger a flare up. Sonya's doctor is employing an intervention that relies on the principles of:

A) stimulus control.
B) contingency contracting.
C) relapse prevention.
D) self-monitoring.

Question 61

Animal research studies have shown that chronic stress leads to a dramatic shrinkage and loss of connectivity among neurons in one area of the:

A) prefrontal cortex.
B) amygdala.
C) temporal lobe.
D) parietal lobe.

Question 62

Which of these is not an anabolic hormone?

A) cortisol
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) growth hormone
D) sex steroids

Question 63

The state called allostatic overload is characterized by:

A) a predominance of catabolic activity at rest.
B) a predominance of anabolic activity at rest.
C) a fluid allostatic system that flexibly shifts from light to low levels of arousal.
D) low resting levels of serum cortisol.

Question 64

People who tend toward self-enhancement:

A) see themselves more negatively than others see them.
B) tend to be maladjusted.
C) struggle in environments that are changing or threatening.
D) tend to be healthy.

Question 65

The process by which the brain's functioning is shaped by feedback from neuroendocrine systems that are working to maintain homeostasis is:

A) allostatic load.
B) physical thriving.
C) biological embedding.
D) methylation.

Question 66

Research and study findings in positive psychology have been criticized for oversimplifying situations and not taking context into account. An example of this has been the work surrounding psychological trait attributions and abusive-relationship dynamics. Which of statement is TRUE regarding the criticisms levied on the studies conducted?

A) Most of the studies conducted have involved couples in abusive relationships and not those involved in nonabusive relationships.
B) Labeling certain traits as positive or negative influences what researchers expect to find, creating observer bias.
C) Since science is essentially value-free, criticism of the research is unfounded.
D) Psychological trait attributions in abusive relationships are applicable only for certain abusive relationships.

Question 67

The hippocampus has large concentrations of receptors for:

A) IGF-1.
B) cortisol.
C) growth hormone.
D) sex hormones.

Question 68

The capacity of the brain and body to withstand challenges to homeostasis is called:

A) allostatic load.
B) resilience.
C) biological embedding.
D) eustress.

Question 69

Prolonged elevations of catabolic hormones:

A) strengthen the body's immune response.
B) lead to faster recovery from illness.
C) damage the body and promote chronic illness.
D) are found in people who rely primarily on emotion-focused coping.

Question 70

Which type of metabolism counters arousal and promotes relaxation and healing processes such as protein synthesis?

A) anabolic
B) catabolic
C) allostatic
D) sympathetic

Question 71

One measure of physical thriving is:

A) a predominance of catabolic activity at rest.
B) a predominance of anabolic activity at rest.
C) a fluid allostatic system that flexibly shifts from light to low levels of arousal.
D) high levels of cortisol, despite ongoing stress.

Question 72

Lower cortisol levels and stronger immune systems are found in people who:

A) score low in measures of self-efficacy.
B) score high in measures of neuroticism.
C) have a strong sense of control in their lives.
D) have a weak sense of mastery in their lives.