Deck 3: Hiring Ethical People

Question 1

What is the goal of the first step in hiring ethical employees?

A) Make your business one that ethical people will want to work for.
B) Design an interview process that can identify ethical applicants.
C) Weed out unethical applicants from the ethical applicants.
D) Attract ethical candidates and discourage unethical people from applying.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

As late as the 1950s, what criteria could many employers use to screen job applicants?

A) education (primarily)
B) gender and age (primarily)
C) almost any they liked
D) ethical character

Answer 2

C

Question 3

What can an employer expect by mentioning use of an ethics screen in a job announcement?

A) more applications from individuals already within the company
B) lawsuits regarding discrimination
C) fewer applicants with low moral standards
D) complaints about invasion of privacy

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following would be an example of the last step in Benjamin Schneider's attraction-selection-attrition cycle?

A) An employee of three years feels the company is no longer environmentally friendly and decides to resign.
B) An employee of three years feels the company is an acceptable place to work and signs a new two-year contract.
C) An employee decides to accept a job at a company because it seems to fit his model organization.
D) The loss of a valued employee decreases the productivity of others in that department.

Question 5

What should an organization's gender, racial, and ethnic employee profile reflect?

A) the organization's management preferences
B) the gender, racial, and ethnic employee profile of the region that provides employees to the company
C) the gender, racial, and ethnic profile of the country
D) the gender, racial, and ethnic employee profile suggested as "ideal" by the Civil Rights Act

Question 6

How does an employer prevent an ethics screen from becoming an invasion of privacy?

A) Make clear that the ethics screen is a condition of acceptance.
B) Have the candidate sign a waiver.
C) Have the candidate sign a nondisclosure agreement.
D) Ensure that the ethics screen deals only with activities related to work.

Question 7

In which of the following ways does back-end disparate discrimination differ from front-end disparate discrimination?

A) Front-end disparate discrimination is intentional; back-end disparate discrimination is not intentional.
B) Front-end disparate discrimination is usually legal; back-end disparate discrimination is typically illegal.
C) Front-end disparate discrimination does not happen to any specific candidates; back-end disparate discrimination acts on actual applicants.
D) Front-end disparate discrimination is typically prosecuted more harshly than back-end disparate discrimination.

Question 8

What is the first step in managing ethical work behaviors?

A) the official employee review
B) the employee-manager relationship
C) employee orientation
D) the hiring process

Question 9

How does the text define the concept of disparate impact?

A) Members of a protected class rarely make it through all the job-screening filters of an organization.
B) Members of a protected class never make it through all the job-screening filters of an organization.
C) The activities of a company consistently harm a protected class in a specific geographic region.
D) A company's hiring practices may be discriminatory with respect to a protected class but are too minor to violate the Civil Rights Act.

Question 10

An employer is hiring for a new position in their company. She has a candidate she likes and offers the candidate the position, then has the candidate undergo a drug screening process. What very specific potential problem is she protecting herself against by taking this step?

A) the need to pay out a severance package
B) a degrading of company work-hour productivity
C) a loss of company reputation
D) a negligent hiring lawsuit

Question 11

How does the current version of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 differ from the legislation as it was originally passed?

A) It protects against discrimination based on religion.
B) It is more restricted in its definition of "protected class."
C) It is not enforced as well.
D) It protects against discrimination based on age.

Question 12

What are the three components of Ben & Jerry's corporate mission?

A) profit and growth, high-quality product, improving life of stakeholders
B) profit and growth, high-quality product, improving life of shareholders
C) profit and growth, environmental sustainability, employee satisfaction
D) employee satisfaction, stakeholder satisfaction, harmony with environment

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is accurate?

A) It can take direct legal action against newly hired employees.
B) It can take direct legal action against employers.
C) It prefers litigation to negotiated solutions.
D) It can prosecute a manager who refuses to hire someone with whom they have a poor personal relationship.

Question 14

What is the major legal requirement that pertains to job applicants when applying to a position?

A) They must not seek to bribe hiring officials at the company.
B) They must not seek to sabotage the applications of other candidates.
C) They must not use their privileged status to get the job.
D) They must respond truthfully to all job-related questions.

Question 15

The four fifths rule would say that no disparate discrimination has happened if which of the following has occurred for a given hiring period?

A) The application for the job position explicitly stated that no discrimination based on protected characteristics would be tolerated in the hiring process.
B) Twenty unprotected candidates and twenty protected class applicants applied to a position.
C) Ten unprotected employees were hired and eight protected class employees were hired.
D) Ten protected class applicants for a position made it to the final stages of the interview process, and five were hired.

Question 16

Which of the following statements about the current nature of discrimination by companies is accurate (dated to 2015 research)?

A) Employers are largely allowed to gather whatever information they want from candidates without government interference.
B) Evidence of discrimination based on race or religion has largely disappeared from modern hiring practices.
C) Companies are almost never held to account for unfair hiring practices.
D) The average company has more than an 11 percent chance of being sued for hiring discrimination.

Question 17

Which of the following is most likely to result in front-end disparate impact job discrimination?

A) A company puts a notice into a job announcement that the job is very physically demanding and those without very good physical health should not apply.
B) A company decides to weed out many of the applications it has by eliminating those under and over a certain age.
C) A company decides to fill a new position by asking current employees to make personal referrals.
D) A religious institution decides not to consider applicants who do not have a professed commitment to that specific religion.

Question 18

In which of the following situations might an employer be able to discriminate against a protected class but remain exempt from prosecution by the EEOC?

A) The CEO of a Fortune 500 company is hiring a personal executive assistant to work for him and him alone.
B) A new moving company, which is run and staffed by three college grads, hires a fourth person to help them out part time.
C) A major chain restaurant is hiring new staff to work in the kitchen of a new branch in a small town.
D) A law firm that represents a wide variety of religious organizations of all faiths is hiring a new candidate for junior partner.

Question 19

According to the text, what is the most important factor for developing and reinforcing a high-integrity work culture?

A) hiring ethical job applicants
B) engaging in workforce-wide ethics training
C) establishing a written code of ethics
D) setting examples through the behavior of the CEO and upper management

Question 20

Which of the following components are necessary when designing a job description to achieve a "good fit"?

A) mention of expectation of loyalty and expectation of ethical behavior
B) realistic description and mention of expectation of ethical behavior
C) warning about punishments and mention of expectation of good work ethic
D) mention of salary and bonuses and promise of a friendly work culture

Question 21

For what major reason will some employers refuse to answer details about the quality of a former employee when asked?

A) too little memory of the employee
B) not wanting to help a rival business
C) fear of violating the candidate's privacy
D) fear of a defamation lawsuit

Question 22

What class of organization is actually legally required to have an affirmative action plan?

A) public universities
B) religious institutions
C) federal contractors and subcontractors
D) the federal judiciary

Question 23

A manager has narrowed applicants for a new position down to a single preferred candidate. Interviews go well, and she is about to hire the candidate when she notices that the candidate's resume has a problem--the end date for one position extends for one year into the beginning date for the subsequent position. What should the manager do?

A) Terminate the candidate's application process.
B) Contact the candidate's previous employers and let them know about the issue.
C) Ask the candidate about the issue and forgive it if it was an innocent mistake.
D) Ask the candidate about the issue and then let the candidate know the hiring process cannot continue.

Question 24

How should reference checking for a managerial position differ from a nonmanagerial position?

A) It should include the candidate's former subordinates.
B) It is not necessary for managerial positions.
C) It should include in-person interviews.
D) It should not be limited to a candidate's listed references on their resume.

Question 25

Which of the following is a likely result of informing potential applicants that a background check will be part of the hiring process in the actual job announcement?

A) The company will have to resort to an internal hiring process to fill the position.
B) The hiring authority will be subject to unfair discrimination lawsuits.
C) Candidates will be less forthcoming about potential issues during interviews.
D) Fewer candidates with problems in their background or behavior will apply.

Question 26

In which of the following ways does a background check differ from a reference check in terms of gathering behavioral information?

A) It is more valuable to the hiring authority.
B) It reveals more about character.
C) It is more objective.
D) It is legally required for most positions.

Question 27

You are trying to do a reference check for a potential new hire, but when you contact the candidate's most recent supervisor by phone, he will only offer the candidate's dates of employment with that company. What should you do?

A) Thank the manager and end the phone call.
B) Ask if the manager would be willing to do an in-person interview.
C) Quickly ask the manager if he would hire that candidate again.
D) Quickly ask the manager if the candidate was ever disciplined in a serious way.

Question 28

What advantage does a reference check have over a resume in terms of gathering a candidate's behavioral information?

A) It is more likely to reveal a candidate's weaknesses with respect to job performance.
B) It is a better way to assess a candidate's past accomplishments.
C) It offers a more comprehensive view of a candidate's extracurricular activities.
D) It will give a more accurate view of a candidate's goals.

Question 29

Which of the following references is most likely to offer positive information about a candidate?

A) a former manager chosen from the candidate's resume
B) a reference listed on the candidate's application
C) a former professor chosen from among the candidate's academic listings
D) a former subordinate chosen from a former workplace

Question 30

Roughly how many people were living illegally in the United States in 2017?

A) 2 million
B) 5 million
C) 8 million
D) 11 million

Question 31

What problem do diploma mills contribute to?

A) reduced attendance at actual universities
B) false contact information on resumes
C) good degrees but from unaccredited institutions
D) listing completed degree achieved without any actual coursework

Question 32

When can employers legally screen applicants for drunk driving arrests?

A) when the applicant admits to being an alcoholic
B) when driving is job-related
C) anytime they like, since it is not a protected behavior
D) when an applicant's manner and appearance seem to indicate drinking problems

Question 33

A judge is asked to rule on a reverse-discrimination case involving an affirmative action plan at a local business. Under which of the following conditions is the judge most likely to rule against the affirmative action plan?

A) The plan works against the profitability of the company.
B) The plan benefits one protected group more than another protected group.
C) There was a strong remedial need for the plan.
D) The plan harms the majority group among potential applicants.

Question 34

What problem is faced when doing a credit check on candidates that is not present when using resumes or reference checks?

A) lost time in the hiring process
B) greater financial cost to the hiring authority or company
C) discriminatory disparate impacts based on gender
D) discriminatory disparate impacts based on race

Question 35

Why is it illegal for an employer to ask about alcoholism?

A) Alcoholism cannot affect job performance in a significant way.
B) Alcoholics should be giving preferred treatment under affirmative action programs.
C) Alcoholism is legally defined as a disability.
D) Alcoholics are a unique protected class.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about illegal immigration and employment is accurate?

A) Asking only Latino applicants about their immigration status is a form of discrimination and must be avoided.
B) Hiring an illegal immigrant often violates state and local laws but not federal law.
C) Verifying employees' immigration status is a costly proposition for employers.
D) To avoid discrimination, the federal government recommends not including information or warnings about legal employment status on applications.

Question 37

For which of the following reasons does the text argue against instituting a protected class quota system?

A) The results can reinforce negative stereotypes about the protected group.
B) It makes a company more susceptible to litigation.
C) It causes undue harm to the majority group.
D) It is unethical to seek artificially high numbers for any protected group.

Question 38

What do job applicants lie about most often on resumes?

A) ethical standards
B) employment dates
C) academic degrees
D) skill sets

Question 39

What does the text recommend a company should do before implementing an affirmative action plan?

A) Make sure it satisfies the four fifths rule.
B) Have it balance out requirements across all protected groups.
C) Submit it for approval by the Justice Department.
D) Have it vetted by a lawyer.

Question 40

Which of the following is a good source for behavior information about a candidate that can be acquired by a potential employer?

A) testing with hypothetical dilemmas
B) resumes
C) private psychological profiles
D) attitudinal survey results

Question 41

Which of the following statements best characterizes the value or status of integrity tests in the workplace today?

A) Some research has shown dramatic accuracy and effect for integrity tests, but some studies still question their validity.
B) Most research has shown little correlation between the results of integrity tests and actual job performance.
C) Integrity tests have been largely invalidated and are rarely used.
D) Only integrity tests backed by polygraph results have shown real-world accuracy.

Question 42

Marian has made it through the interview process and has been given an offer of employment conditional to her passage of an integrity test. When she takes the test and begins to answer, what form will her answers most likely take?

A) a range between "strongly disagree" and "strongly agree"
B) short essay responses giving personal opinions
C) "yes" or "no"
D) verbal responses that include emotional reactions

Question 43

According to the text, which of the following is a best practice for socially responsible use of online background checks?

A) Do not use outdated information.
B) Allow unrestricted access to the information for in-house employees only.
C) Do not apply Title VII protected class information to social media discoveries.
D) Do not give candidate prior warning to an online background check; this will result in edited information.

Question 44

Why did integrity tests become more popular after 1988?

A) The Likert Scale was introduced.
B) The Office of Technology Assessment validated the benefit of these tests.
C) Computerized assessments became more viable.
D) The use of the polygraph was highly restricted.

Question 45

An employee scoring very high on the self-development component of an OCB measure might be expected to ______.

A) be particularly outgoing to new employees and try to make them welcome
B) volunteer to take a skills course to improve the range of tasks she can accomplish
C) volunteer to help others with particularly difficult tasks
D) take a leadership role among employees at similar hierarchical levels

Question 46

At what point in the hiring process can medical or mental health tests be given to a job candidate?

A) when the candidate first applies
B) after the interview process is completed
C) after a job offer has been made
D) after the candidate has been hired

Question 47

How do personality tests differ from integrity tests?

A) They make greater use of hypothetical situations.
B) They are more likely to use a Likert Scale for grading.
C) They give a broader understanding of the candidate.
D) They deal less with ethics and more with wants and goals.

Question 48

How difficult is it for a company to find out if an applicant has a criminal record?

A) Quite difficult; this information is protected for privacy reasons.
B) Not difficult at all; the information is easily accessible on the Internet.
C) Somewhat difficult; a company must pay substantial fees for a background check, which can be a burden on the hiring process.
D) Quite difficult; those with a criminal history are considered a protected class.

Question 49

According to the EEOC which of the following must be true of a candidate's past criminal activity for it to be used as a reason for exclusion?

A) The criminal pattern must be ongoing.
B) The crime must be job-related.
C) The candidate must have served jail or prison time.
D) The crime must be self-disclosed.

Question 50

For which of the following two things has research shown a positive correlation?

A) high social dominance orientation scores and sexism B. high social dominance orientation scores and volunteerism within the workplace
C) high social dominance orientation scores and organizational loyalty
D) high organizational citizenship behavior scores and racism

Question 51

If a manager is implementing a hiring process and distributing applications in a state that has passed "Ban the Box" legislation, the manager likely cannot ask about what until after the interview process?

A) ethical standards
B) criminal record
C) race or age
D) family status

Question 52

In personality tests, which of the following factors is the strongest predictor of ethical behavior?

A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) emotional stability
D) extraversion

Question 53

Why can't general personality tests be used to detect a personality disorder?

A) Personality tests are incapable of detecting a personality disorder.
B) People with personality disorders have a protected class status.
C) Employers lack the training to properly interpret the results of a personality test.
D) Personality tests are too sensitive and result in personality disorder false positives.

Question 54

Which of the following is a Big Five personality factor that also corresponds to integrity test scores?

A) openness to experience
B) emotional stability
C) extraversion
D) social dominance

Question 55

In what way do integrity tests differ from background checks?

A) They are more complicated to administer.
B) They are a more reliable guide to past candidate behavior.
C) They are a more reliable guide to future candidate behavior.
D) It's much easier for a dishonest candidate to hide that dishonesty.

Question 56

Janelle was recently hired at a nonprofit as an entry-level researcher. Although her job only requires her to assist the executive staff with research, she often goes to other departments and offers her help when she is not busy with other work. Based only on this, we can surmise that Janelle would have scored very high on what measure of a personality test?

A) social dominance orientation
B) emotional stability
C) organizational citizenship behavior
D) openness to experience

Question 57

In which of the following ways are personality and integrity tests similar?

A) They are most often used as an alternative to background checks.
B) They often punish members of protected classes.
C) They can cause disparate racial discrimination.
D) They can illicit intentionally false but socially desirable answers.

Question 58

Which of the following statements about bullying in the workplace is accurate?

A) Roughly 10 percent of the U.S. workforce reports having been bullied by a coworker or manager.
B) High social dominance orientation suggests that an employee will be able to stand up to bullying in the workplace.
C) The most common form of reported workplace bullying was pressure to commit an unethical act.
D) Innate bullying tendencies are often linked to sexist beliefs.

Question 59

A manager is hiring for a new and highly sensitive position in the human resources department. An internal candidate has been referred to the manager for the interview process, but the manager is worried, based on some informal information, that the candidate has a serious mental health condition. How should the manager bring up the issue?

A) The manager should not try to understand if the condition could affect job performance.
B) Ask the candidate if he or she has any mental health conditions.
C) Ask the candidate if he or she is able to perform all job functions and meet the job's attendance requirements.
D) Ask the candidate if he or she has been treated for any mental health conditions.

Question 60

Which of the following statements about the requirements imposed by the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is accurate?

A) A potential employer must obtain the candidate's permission to pull a credit report.
B) A potential employer cannot refuse employment based on the results of a credit report.
C) Applicants can protest use of a credit report but cannot challenge the accuracy of the report.
D) If wanting to challenge a company's interpretation of a credit report, the candidate must request the government provide one for their study.

Question 61

Which of the following interview questions about a candidate's ethical behavior in past work experiences would not be appropriate if the candidate is interviewing for a sales position at a car dealership?

A) "Tell me about a time you witnessed a friend or family member do something unethical."
B) "Tell me about a time a customer asked you to act outside the parameters of your job."
C) "Tell me about a time, if it has occurred, when a supervisor asked you to inflate sales figures to make your company look better."
D) "Tell me about a time you witnessed sexual harassment in the workplace."

Question 62

If ever legally cleared for use, what will likely be the biggest obstacle to widespread adoption of the fMRI polygraph?

A) cultural bias
B) cost
C) public stigma
D) privacy concerns

Question 63

In which of the following ways does drug testing differ from polygraph testing as part of a hiring process?

A) Drug testing provides less conclusive test results than does polygraph testing.
B) Drug testing is far more controversial as a candidate screen than polygraph testing.
C) Drug testing is far more expensive than polygraph testing because it cannot be done in-house.
D) Drug testing is sometimes mandatory in nongovernmental industries; polygraph testing never is.

Question 64

What is a major exception to the Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988?

A) It does not apply to governmental entities.
B) It does not apply to protected status groups.
C) It does not apply to candidates with a criminal history.
D) All educational institutions may use a polygraph for hiring screens.

Question 65

In what way do small businesses differ from large ones who make ethics an even more important part of the job-screening process?

A) a more cut-throat competitive workplace
B) a less profit-based atmosphere
C) a higher propensity to hire unethical people
D) a greater need for task delegation

Question 66

Which of the following would be most common as an offer-contingent, post-interview test for positions in private-sector companies?

A) integrity test
B) personality test
C) polygraph
D) drug test

Question 67

Many changes and improvements have been made to polygraph testing. What does the modern polygraph detect?

A) half-truths
B) lying
C) nervousness
D) intent to act unethically

Question 68

Which of the following discoveries had a major influence on the Supreme Court's decision in United States v. Frye (1923)?

A) The polygraph only had about a 75-80 percent success rate at detecting falsehoods.
B) Employers were using the polygraph to punish current employees, not screen new ones.
C) The polygraph caused mental exhaustion in those it tested.
D) The polygraph detected anxieties, not lies.

Question 69

What bodily tendencies should a manager look for to detect dishonesty during the interview process?

A) lessened eye contact and increased blinking
B) none, because they are not reliable
C) lack of detail and pauses in responses
D) odd breathing and sweating

Question 70

A manager wants to institute a drug testing policy for new hires. She wants the testing to be as noninvasive as possible but have very high validity. She does not care about how long it will take to get test results. What method should she choose?

A) urinalysis
B) blood testing
C) hair testing
D) saliva testing

Question 71

The text suggests benchmarking an individual's behavior to help determine level of honesty in responses. What might this benchmarking entail?

A) asking the candidate if they have any reason to be nervous or feel threatened during the interview
B) asking the candidate about their hometown or how they are feeling and noting how relaxed or nervous they are
C) having another employee speak to the candidate before the interview and recording reactions
D) asking the employee to describe a particularly scary incident in their life

Question 72

Given the persistent questions, controversies, and inadequacies of the polygraph, what should an employer do if using polygraph as a screening tool?

A) Give the candidate a chance to challenge any negative results.
B) Give each candidate a polygraph examination three times and take the average of the results.
C) Use the results of the polygraph only if the candidate has other obvious problems in his background check.
D) Present the findings to a candidate's former employers for feedback on accuracy.

Question 73

Which of the following would not be an acceptable subject of a question asked of a candidate in an interview?

A) clarification on an inconsistency in a resume
B) five-year goals
C) ethical outlook
D) marital status

Question 74

While giving an interview, Ari has noticed that some of the candidate's responses don't sync up with information given in her resume. What is the best way for Ari to phrase a question asking about this issue?

A) "There's a problem with some of your statements…"
B) "You stated that…"
C) "I'm wondering why you said…"
D) "I can't imagine why you said…"

Question 75

Which of the following is TRUE of giving a realistic job preview?

A) They contribute to higher levels of turnover.
B) They typically contribute to "entry shock."
C) They usually reduce acceptance rates but not by much.
D) They should be clear about the tedious/unpleasant aspects of a job.

Question 76

Which of the following is TRUE of substance abuse and work in the U.S.?

A) Substance abuse is estimated to cost employers $120 billion a year.
B) Substance abuse by employees has fallen dramatically every year for several decades.
C) Protected groups, especially racial minorities, make up the typical illegal drug user.
D) Substance abuse is a problem but rarely affects job performance.

Question 77

Which of the following is TRUE of administering drug tests to job candidates?

A) Drug testing is optional in all private-sector industries, but it is not optional in governmental ones.
B) Candidates are often asked to pay for the cost of their drug tests.
C) It is illegal without clear suspicion of abuse.
D) The cost is relatively low for the employer.

Question 78

Under which of the following conditions is an applicant most likely to be subjected to a polygraph test?

A) applying for a private sector job and having a history of criminal behavior
B) applying for a job in a state judiciary
C) applying for a job as upper management at a major corporation
D) applying for a nonprofit job and having a history of mental illness

Question 79

In which of the following ways was Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 altered in 2012?

A) restricted in application to exclude jobs with very high physical demands
B) restricted in application to exclude sensitive government agencies
C) expanded to include mental disability
D) expanded to included gender identity or sexual orientation

Question 80

What did the first lie detector machine use as a criterion for detecting falsehood?

A) blood pressure
B) skin changes
C) eye movement
D) breath rate