Deck 25: Cardiovascular Drugs

Question 1

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Meaning a drug has a small range between being effective and safe, or toxic (Narrow Therapeutic Index)

A)Hypotension
B)Coronary heart disease (CHD)
C)HF (heart failure)
D)Tachycardia
E)NTI

Answer 1

NTI

Question 2

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents that dissolve and liquefy existing clots, used in appropriate acute MI and stroke patients.

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Answer 2

Thombolytic agent

Question 3

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Heart rate or pulse above normal

A)Hypotension
B)Coronary heart disease (CHD)
C)HF (heart failure)
D)Tachycardia
E)NTI

Answer 3

Tachycardia

Question 4

Establishing the correct therapeutic dose for maintaining optimal functioning of the heart with a cardiac glycoside and continued monitoring of serum blood level is crucial because _________.

A) all cardiac drugs require regular blood monitoring
B) digitalis is used to increase heart rate.
C) It is not crucial, cardiac glycosides are very safe and widely used drugs
D) digoxin is an NTI drug

Question 5

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Blood pressure above what is considered healthy

A)Bradycardia
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hematopoiesis
E)Ischemia

Question 6

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents that act in a variety of ways to suppress or correct abnormal heart rhythms

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 7

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Single drug in this class, digoxin, primarily for heart failure; increases force of contractions

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 8

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Insufficient blood flow to parts of the heart or other tissues

A)Bradycardia
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hematopoiesis
E)Ischemia

Question 9

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents used to lower blood cholesterol levels

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 10

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents used to stimulate formation of specific blood cell lines.

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 11

Match each item with the correct statement below.
A cholesterol level over 200 mg/dL is a key risk factor for this.

A)Hypotension
B)Coronary heart disease (CHD)
C)HF (heart failure)
D)Tachycardia
E)NTI

Question 12

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents that interfere with blood clotting, includes coumarins and heparins.

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 13

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents that act in a variety of ways to control high blood pressure, they do not cure it.

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 14

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Heart rate or pulse below normal

A)Bradycardia
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hematopoiesis
E)Ischemia

Question 15

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents that dilate blood vessels, some act more peripheral and others directly on cardiac vessels

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 16

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Blood pressure below what is considered normal

A)Hypotension
B)Coronary heart disease (CHD)
C)HF (heart failure)
D)Tachycardia
E)NTI

Question 17

Match each item with the correct statement below.
Formation, differentiation, and maturation of blood cells

A)Bradycardia
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hematopoiesis
E)Ischemia

Question 18

Match each item with the correct statement below.
The heart is failing to adequately pump nutrients and oxygen to body tissues.

A)Hypotension
B)Coronary heart disease (CHD)
C)HF (heart failure)
D)Tachycardia
E)NTI

Question 19

Match the appropriate classification to the corresponding drug actions or description.
Agents interfere with activation pathways of platelet clumping, aspirin is one of these.

A)Anticoagulant
B)Antihypertensive
C)Cardiac glycoside
D)Antilipemic agent
E)Platelet inhibitor
F)Antiarrhythmic
G)Thombolytic agent
H)Vasodilators
I)Hematopoietic agents

Question 20

Match each item with the correct statement below.
A blood clot

A)Bradycardia
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hematopoiesis
E)Ischemia

Question 21

Drugs that prevent formation of blood clots or decrease the extension of existing blood clots are called ______.

A) antiarrhythmic agents
B) anticoagulants
C) antihypertensives
D) antilipemic agents

Question 22

Bile acid sequestrants achieve efficacy by which mechanism of action?

A) Inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses
B) Binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol
C) Inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues
D) Inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine

Question 23

Side effects are uncommon in the use of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), but those that may occur include _________.

A) blood dyscrasias, severe hypotension, chronic cough, or nasal congestion
B) dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, and upper respiratory tract infections
C) hypertension
D) tachycardia, edema, and weight gain

Question 24

A variety of drugs that act in different ways to suppress various types of cardiac arrhythmias are called _________.

A) antiarrhythmic agents
B) antihypertensives
C) antilipemic agents
D) thrombolytic agents

Question 25

Insufficient blood supply to an organ is ______.

A) bradycardia
B) hypertension
C) tachycardia
D) ischemia

Question 26

Local anesthetics produce antiarrhythmic action by __________.

A) inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors
B) suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle
C) depressing myocardial contractility
D) stabilizing membranes

Question 27

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by _________.

A) decreasing vasoconstriction
B) blocking the hormone that causes vasoconstriction
C) a central-acting alpha-adrenergic agent
D) peripheral vasodilation

Question 28

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work by which mechanism of action?

A) Decreasing vasoconstriction
B) Blocking the hormone that causes vasoconstriction
C) Dilating coronary vessels.
D) Dilating the peripheral vascular bed

Question 29

Side effects of local anesthetics (such as Lidocaine) may include _____.

A) bronchospasms and hypoglycemia
B) edema, headache, and vertigo
C) bradycardia, constipation, and abdominal discomfort
D) seizures, dizziness, confusion, respiratory depression, and respiratory arrest

Question 30

Side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors include _________.

A) rash, photosensitivity, blood dyscrasias, severe hypotension, cough, or nasal congestion
B) dizziness, upper respiratory tract infections, and hyperkalemia
C) hypertension
D) orthostatic hypotension, GI symptoms, and blood abnormalities

Question 31

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) work by __________.

A) inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses
B) binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol
C) inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues
D) inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine

Question 32

Drugs that potentiate the body's process of fibrinolysis are _______.

A) platelet inhibitors
B) vasodilators
C) thrombolytic agents
D) vasoconstrictors

Question 33

Side effects of adrenergic blockers include _______.

A) hypotension, bradycardia, bronchospasms, and hypoglycemia
B) headache, bradycardia with heart block, edema, and abdominal discomfort
C) cardiac arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, neurotoxicity, and visual disturbances
D) seizures, dizziness, confusion, respiratory depression, and respiratory arrest

Question 34

Side effects of the calcium channel blockers include ________.

A) bronchospasms and hypoglycemia
B) headache, bradycardia with heart block, edema, and abdominal discomfort
C) cardiac arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, neurotoxicity, and visual disturbances
D) seizures, dizziness, confusion, and respiratory depression and arrest

Question 35

Medications used to dilate blood vessels supplying the heart muscle are referred to as ______.

A) antiarrhythmic agents
B) antilipemic agents
C) coronary vasodilators
D) vasoconstrictors

Question 36

Drug therapy for patients with elevated serum cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein concentrations includes _____.

A) antiarrhythmic agents
B) anticoagulants
C) antihypertensives
D) antilipemic agents

Question 37

Which of the following medications are given as prophylactic therapy to decrease platelet clumping in patients with a history of recent stoke or recent MI?

A) Platelet inhibitors
B) Tachycardia
C) Thrombolytic agents
D) Vasoconstrictors

Question 38

Adrenergic blockers act as antiarrhythmics by ________.

A) inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors
B) suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle
C) relaxes smooth and cardiac muscle with multiple and complex electrophysiological effects
D) stabilizing membranes

Question 39

The mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers involves _______.

A) inhibiting sympathetic nerve receptors
B) suppressing the action of calcium in contraction of the heart muscle
C) relaxes smooth and cardiac muscle with multiple and complex electrophysiological effects
D) stabilizing membranes

Question 40

Systolic blood pressure of 140 or greater or diastolic blood pressure of 90 or greater is ______.

A) bradycardia
B) hypertension
C) tachycardia
D) ischemia

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true of heparin?

A) INR is used to evaluate for safe and therapeutic levels.
B) Protamine sulfate may be used to counteract excess presence of heparin.
C) The onset of action may require more than 24 hours.
D) The medication is only administered orally.

Question 42

Niacin should be discontinued immediately if the patient complains of skin flushing because this indicates a serious allergic reaction.

Question 43

Nicotinic acid (niacin) is effective through which action?

A) Inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses
B) Binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol
C) Inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues
D) Inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine

Question 44

To be considered for use in stroke, Alteplase must be given within 3 hours of onset of stroke symptoms.

Question 45

The side effect associated with all anticoagulants includes ______.

A) thrombocytopenia
B) osteoporosis
C) hematuria
D) All of the above.

Question 46

Warfarin is the anticoagulant of choice because it has so few interactions with other medications.

Question 47

Which of the following comments made by a patient taking digitalis indicates further follow-up teaching is indicated?

A) "I should use an over-the-counter antacid to treat stomach irritation while taking my medication."
B) "I will hold medications and consult with a physician if any side effects occur."
C) "I will check my pulse every morning before taking my medication."
D) "I will not change brands or forms of my medication without checking with the doctor."

Question 48

Which comment made by a patient taking anticoagulants indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "I will report any sign of bleeding immediately."
B) "I will take special care with shaving and brushing my teeth."
C) "Once my INR is stable, no additional follow-up lab studies will be necessary."
D) "I will wear a medical alert."

Question 49

Proton pump inhibitors should be prescribed along with Clopidogrel to minimize the risk of gastric ulcers.

Question 50

Adenosine is equally effective to diltiazem or verapamil in converting PSVT.

Question 51

Which comment made by a patient taking coronary vasodilators (nitrates) indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "I will sit down before taking my rapid-acting tablets."
B) "I will change positions slowly."
C) "I will notify the doctor if I get a headache because it could be dangerous."
D) "If I take three of my tablets and I still have the pain, I will call 911."

Question 52

Fenofibrates are considered a good choice for reducing LDL in diabetes because they improve glucose tolerance.

Question 53

Which comment made by a patient taking antihypertensives indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "Now that I'm on blood pressure medications, I don't have hypertension."
B) "I will avoid hot tubs and saunas because they can make me dizzy."
C) "I will change positions slowly to avoid lightheadedness."
D) "I will not skip doses or double dose."

Question 54

Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of Amiodarone?

A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Visual disturbances and blindness
C) Increase in peripheral vascular resistance
D) Neurotoxicity

Question 55

Which comment made by a patient taking antilipemics indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "Since I am on cholesterol medications, my diet choices are no longer an issue."
B) "I will continue my low-fat diet and exercise plan."
C) "Any onset of muscle pain, weakness, or bleeding will be reported to my doctor right away."
D) "I will do follow-up lab studies with the doctor."

Question 56

Cholesterol absorption inhibitors work by _________.

A) inhibiting the enzyme needed for cholesterol syntheses
B) binding with bile acids in the intestine, which reduces the total body cholesterol
C) inhibiting the mobilization of free fatty acids from the peripheral tissues
D) inhibiting intestinal absorption of both dietary and biliary cholesterol, blocking its transport in the small intestine

Question 57

Which of the following comments made by a patient taking antiarrhythmics indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "I will change positions slowly."
B) "If I forget a dose of my medicine, I will take a double dose when it is next due."
C) "I will discard my medications if the expiration date is past."
D) "I will not compare my medications with other people taking heart pills."

Question 58

Warfarin and heparin are useful in dissolving blood clots to prevent embolization.

Question 59

Which of the following statements is true of coumarin?

A) Its antidote is vitamin K.
B) The lab test to measure action is activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
C) The medication may only be administered parenterally.
D) Its onset of action is immediate.

Question 60

Protamine is used to completely reverse the activity of LMWHs.

Question 61

Prehypertension is defined by a blood pressure of 120-139 systolic over 80-89 diastolic.

Question 62

ACE-Is are more effective at treating blood pressure in African American populations than calcium channel blockers.

Question 63

Diuretics are first-line therapy for treatment of hypertension, either alone or in combination with another antihypertension agent.