Deck 7: Blood

Question 1

An increased risk for cardiovascular health problems is associated with

A) an elevated level of hemoglobin.
B) high blood levels of HDLs.
C) decreased production of albumins.
D) high blood levels of LDLs.
E) low blood levels of LDLs.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

When a blood vessel gets damaged, contractions of smooth muscle referred to as ________ help constrict the vessel to reduce blood flow.

A) vascular spasms
B) hemostasis
C) homeostasis
D) formed elements
E) endocytosis

Answer 2

A

Question 3

All of the following are ways in which blood functions to maintain homeostasis in the human body EXCEPT which one?

A) moving carbon dioxide away from cells following completion of aerobic metabolism
B) conducting action potentials that originate in the nervous system to help with cell-cell communication
C) transporting amino acids and other nutrients derived from digestion to all tissues in the body
D) transporting hormones and other chemical messengers throughout the body from their point of secretion to their targets
E) regulating the pH of body fluids

Answer 3

B

Question 4

A high hematocrit might indicate

A) anemia.
B) too many white blood cells in circulation.
C) inadequate red blood cell production.
D) excessive production of platelets.
E) polycythemia.

Question 5

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding deoxyhemoglobin?

A) Deoxyhemoglobin delivers oxygen to tissues that have a high oxygen demand.
B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a bright red color.
C) Deoxyhemoglobin is found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities.
D) Deoxyhemoglobin would form in organs with a high concentration of oxygen, such as the lungs.
E) Deoxyhemoglobin is located in white blood cells, unlike oxyhemoglobin.

Question 6

Which one of the following is a component of blood plasma?

A) collagen
B) hemoglobin
C) bone
D) water
E) mitochondria

Question 7

Removal of the heme group from hemoglobin would result in

A) red blood cells not being able to reproduce.
B) white blood cells not being able to reproduce.
C) an inability for blood to clot.
D) red blood cells not being able to bind oxygen.
E) an inability of the spleen to remove worn-out red blood cells from circulation.

Question 8

Albumin proteins in human blood function

A) to initiate blood clotting.
B) to transport oxygen to target cells.
C) to maintain blood volume.
D) as electrolytes.
E) to attack foreign organisms that enter the blood.

Question 9

Histamine is released from which one of the following types of leukocyte to stimulate the inflammatory response?

A) lymphocyte
B) basophil
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
E) monocyte

Question 10

A scientist is interested in doing a research project on hemoglobin. From which one of the following could he extract the hemoglobin for his study?

A) globulins
B) white blood cells
C) platelets
D) clotting proteins
E) red blood cells

Question 11

A damaged red blood cell is removed from circulation by

A) phagocytosis by macrophages in the spleen.
B) basophils releasing histamine to stimulate breakdown of RBCs.
C) returning to red bone marrow and autolyzing.
D) being actively transported into macrophages in the liver and spleen.
E) endocytosis directed by monocytes.

Question 12

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the "recycling" of hemoglobin?

A) The peptide chains are broken down into their constituent fatty acids.
B) The iron atoms are returned to the red bone marrow.
C) The heme groups are converted to urine by the kidneys.
D) The peptide chains are transported intact to the bone marrow for reuse.
E) The heme groups with their iron atoms are transported to the spleen.

Question 13

A researcher wants to produce antibodies by growing cells in the laboratory. What cell population would be necessary to accomplish this?

A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) red blood cells
D) lymphocytes
E) eosinophils

Question 14

About 55% of whole blood is ________, which is/are mostly made up of water.

A) plasma
B) hemoglobin
C) white blood cells
D) clotting proteins
E) hematocrit

Question 15

When the hormone erythropoietin is released in response to low oxygen levels, where is it transported to stimulate red blood cell production?

A) kidney
B) spleen
C) red bone marrow
D) liver
E) throughout plasma

Question 16

Albumin, alpha globulin, beta globulin, and gamma globulin are all examples of

A) plasma proteins.
B) antibodies.
C) white blood cells.
D) clotting factors.
E) hormones.

Question 17

Unlike white blood cells, red blood cells lose their ________ and ________ as they mature.

A) nucleus; organelles
B) nucleus; ATP
C) organelles; plasma membrane
D) nucleolus; cytoplasm
E) flexibility; shape

Question 18

When oxygen availability drops, certain cells in the kidney respond by producing erythropoietin, which in turn stimulates an increase in red blood cells. This cellular response represents

A) the clotting mechanism.
B) negative feedback.
C) positive feedback.
D) the all-or-none response.
E) aerobic metabolism.

Question 19

Which one of the following populations of cells is most markedly increased during bacterial infections?

A) neutrophils
B) red blood cells
C) platelets
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes

Question 20

During the formation of a blood clot, conversion of prothrombin into the enzyme thrombin requires

A) mitochondria.
B) transport of proteins from platelets.
C) calcium ions.
D) leukocytes.
E) albumin.

Question 21

A physician finds that one of his patients has the following problems: Blood clots very slowly or not at all, and severe bruises result from even the most minor bumps. Which one of the following conditions would likely be diagnosed based on this information?

A) polycythemia
B) hemophilia
C) AIDS
D) anemia
E) mononucleosis

Question 22

Which one of the following types of white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) B lymphocytes
E) both eosinophils and B lymphocytes

Question 23

Which one of the following formed elements in the blood is not a cell but is actually a fragment of a cell?

A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) platelet
E) plasma

Question 24

Foreign cells that enter the human body have unique cell surface proteins, known as ________, which stimulate the body's defense to attack.

A) leukocytes
B) Rh factors
C) antibodies
D) platelets
E) antigens

Question 25

Which one of the following occurs first in the process of hemostasis?

A) blood clotting
B) production of fibrin
C) formation of a platelet plug
D) vascular spasm
E) destruction of calcium ions

Question 26

Results of an ABO blood typing indicate agglutination reactions when anti-A and anti-B are added to the blood sample. The blood type of the individual would therefore be

A) A.
B) B.
C) O.
D) AB.
E) Not enough information given to determine blood type.

Question 27

The inflammatory response is initiated by the release of ________ from basophils.

A) histamine
B) hemoglobin
C) clotting factors
D) granulosen
E) erythropoietin

Question 28

Blood doping, practiced by many athletes involved in the Tour de France as well as other sports, involves the illegal use of drugs to

A) increase circulation.
B) increase the amount of oxygen carried in blood.
C) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in blood.
D) elevate the rate of hemostasis.
E) increase red bone marrow production.

Question 29

As an erythroblast develops into an erythrocyte, it

A) becomes filled with clotting proteins.
B) begins to manufacture platelets.
C) loses its ability to reproduce.
D) takes on the characteristics of an immature monocyte.
E) undergoes active aerobic metabolism.

Question 30

Eosinophils are especially important in defending the human body from infection by

A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) molds.
D) large parasites.
E) any type of microorganism.

Question 31

Which one of the following blood types can a person with blood type B safely receive in a blood transfusion?

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) B and O

Question 32

Which one of the following components of blood increase in number in response to the presence of an infectious agent?

A) clotting factors
B) albumins
C) white blood cells
D) red blood cells
E) platelets

Question 33

Hemolytic disease of the newborn could result from which one of the following situations?

A) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh-
B) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh+
C) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh+
D) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh-

Question 34

Which one of the following is directly involved in the process of blood clotting?

A) sodium ions
B) antigen
C) fibrin
D) clotting factor XX
E) globulins

Question 35

Dead and injured white blood cells are removed from circulation by the

A) spleen.
B) tonsils.
C) red bone marrow.
D) kidney.
E) thymus.

Question 36

The development of a blood substitute would be welcomed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT which one?

A) Human blood may carry and transmit infectious agents.
B) Human blood storage requires refrigeration, which might not be available in developing countries.
C) The supply of donated human blood generally cannot keep up with the demand.
D) Transfused blood rarely persists for more than a few days in the recipient.
E) Typing and cross-matching are necessary with human blood, and the right type may not be available.

Question 37

If an individual is O+, which of the following antigens are on the surface of his or her red blood cells?

A) O and Rh
B) A, B, and Rh
C) Rh
D) O
E) A and B

Question 38

Blood displays a bright red color when

A) oxygen is released by hemoglobin as blood travels through capillaries.
B) four oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin to create oxyhemoglobin.
C) plasma albumin levels increase as blood goes through the lungs.
D) carbon dioxide binds to the heme group of hemoglobin.
E) deoxyhemoglobin is formed in blood plasma.

Question 39

Donating blood in the United States

A) requires that the donor be at least age 17.
B) does not involve a physical examination.
C) though beneficial, may take several hours to complete.
D) depends on donors with no prior sexual history.
E) is easy and painless, and many donors are allowed to give 5 to 10 units at a time.

Question 40

Which one of the following is a human blood type?

A) E+
B) B-
C) ABO-
D) Rh
E) Rh+

Question 41

The Epstein-Barr virus can induce a contagious infection of lymphocytes referred to as

A) toxemia
B) septicemia
C) leukemia
D) anemia
E) mononucleosis

Question 42

Hemoglobin binds oxygen most efficiently in areas of the body where the pH is low and the concentration of carbon dioxide is high.

Question 43

Unlike red blood cells, white blood cells are capable of leaving blood vessels to enter the tissue fluid between cells.

Question 44

Platelets function to engulf foreign cells by phagocytosis.

Question 45

Based on information in the figure above, why do individuals with kidney disease sometimes become anemic?

A) The diseased kidneys destroy circulating red blood cells.
B) The diseased kidneys do not secrete adequate erythropoietin.
C) Excessive red blood cells are lost in the urine due to leaky filtration in the diseased kidneys.
D) Kidney disease spreads to the bones and interferes with red blood cell production.

Question 46

Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by the spleen that results in an increased production of red blood cells.

Question 47

When drugs such as penicillin are transported in the blood, they are attached to globulins, a type of specialized hemoglobin molecule.

Question 48

If a person were to stay at high altitudes for a long period of time, his or her hematocrit would increase in order to compensate for the decrease in the amount of oxygen in the air he or she is breathing.

Question 49

The circulatory system's main function is to help maintain homeostasis of body fluids.

Question 50

Calcium must activate prothrombin to its enzyme form before it can participate in the clotting mechanism.

Question 51

An individual with hemophilia generally lacks or has very low numbers of platelets.

Question 52

It is now possible for parents to bank the umbilical cord blood of their children; the cells in the cord would then be available for use later in the life of the child to treat a genetic disorder or cancer, should it develop.

Question 53

Most lipids need to be attached to transport proteins to move through blood.

Question 54

An athlete participating in blood doping would be expected to have a low hematocrit.

Question 55

Mature red blood cells have no nucleus or mitochondria.

Question 56

Most of the time, Rh incompatibility between mother (Rh-) and fetus (Rh+) does not cause fetal health problems with the woman's first pregnancy.

Question 57

Blood plasma contains dissolved proteins and hormones.

Question 58

Blood substitutes currently being investigated focus on the oxygen-carrying capability of the substitutes as well as their ability to provide defenses similar to those of white blood cells.

Question 59

The circulatory and lymphatic systems both serve major transport functions in the body, with contents of the lymphatic system essentially derived from the circulatory system.

Question 60

Oxygen, but not carbon dioxide, can bind to the heme group of hemoglobin.

Question 61

Blood poisoning (septicemia) is typically treated with transfusions.

Question 62

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
leukocyte that releases histamine to cause an inflammatory response

Question 63

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
remains in the bone marrow but participates in the clotting process

Question 64

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
erythropoietin stimulates stem cells to make this type of cell

Question 65

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
filled with hemoglobin

Question 66

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
transport of most of the oxygen

Question 67

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
transport of albumins

Question 68

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
fighting infection

Question 69

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
large white blood cell that leaves the blood to go into body tissue and becomes a macrophage

Question 70

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
gives rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies

Question 71

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
the first white blood cell to combat an infection

Question 72

Match each of the following conditions with its description.

A) thrombocytopenia
B) leukemia
C) polycythemia
D) multiple myeloma
E) mononucleosis
F) anemia
a blood cancer characterized by overproduction of abnormal or immature white blood cells

Question 73

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
the most abundant type of white blood cell

Question 74

Match each of the following conditions with its description.

A) thrombocytopenia
B) leukemia
C) polycythemia
D) multiple myeloma
E) mononucleosis
F) anemia
a viral infection of lymphocytes in blood and lymph tissues

Question 75

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
transport of carbon dioxide

Question 76

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
formation of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

Question 77

Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.

A) blood plasma
B) formed elements
C) both blood plasma and formed elements
blood clotting

Question 78

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
protects the body from parasitic infections

Question 79

Match each of the following conditions with its description.

A) thrombocytopenia
B) leukemia
C) polycythemia
D) multiple myeloma
E) mononucleosis
F) anemia
a condition caused by a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood; may be diagnosed by a low hematocrit

Question 80

Match each of the following cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.

A) eosinophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) megakaryocyte
D) B lymphocyte
E) erythrocyte
F) neutrophil
G) monocyte
H) basophil
an agranulocyte that targets and then destroys cancer cells and viral-infected cells