Deck 8: Political Parties

Question 1

A political party is a group of individuals who do which of the following?

A) Answer strictly to designated party leaders
B) Agree on all policy issues
C) Obtain positions of official power
D) Organize to win elections and operate the government
E) Pay monthly dues to an ideological organization

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following is the primary goal of an American political party?

A) Peaceably influencing the American public
B) Signing up large numbers of deeply committed members
C) Getting the party's candidates elected to office by winning elections
D) Collecting member dues
E) Trying to find the other party doing "bad" things

Answer 2

C

Question 3

After winning office in 1828, Andrew Jackson shortened the name of his party to what, signaling that it was a new kind of political party organization?

A) Whig Party
B) Green Party
C) Democratic Party
D) Republican Party
E) Progressive Party

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following is a group of individuals who join together to choose candidates for elected office, whether by informal group voting or a formal nominating process?

A) Interest group
B) Political party
C) Labor union
D) Lobby
E) Special interest

Question 5

Which of the following best describes George Washington's views on political parties?

A) Necessity for the functioning of democracy
B) Tradition from colonial times that would always exist
C) Threat to national unity and popular government
D) Legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government
E) Vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past

Question 6

The four most important functions of a political party are structuring the voting choice in elections, proposing alternative government programs, coordinating the actions of government officials, and which of the following?

A) Nominating candidates for election to public office
B) Engineering federal budget proposals
C) Organizing partisan protests
D) Acting as a link between federal and state governments
E) Introducing legislation to Congress

Question 7

The first partisan political division in the United States was between which of the following?

A) The Democrats and the Republicans
B) The Whigs and the Democrats
C) The Federalists and the Anti-Federalists
D) The Whigs and the Tories
E) The Whigs and the Republicans

Question 8

Which of the following best describes political parties during the period leading up to the Civil War?

A) The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery.
B) Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party.
C) The Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support.
D) The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery, and antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party.
E) Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party, and the Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support.

Question 9

Which of the following describes the formation of the modern Republican Party?

A) It was formed as a response to the Seneca Falls Convention for women's rights.
B) It was formed from a coalition of antislavery factions.
C) It was formed as an outgrowth of the Southern Whigs.
D) It was formed as the party supporting rum, Romanism, and rebellion.
E) It was formed during the era of good feelings.

Question 10

What most distinguishes political parties from interest groups like the AFL-CIO and the National Association of Manufacturers?

A) Political parties focus on multiple issues, whereas each interest group only focuses on one.
B) Political parties have more money than interest groups.
C) Interest groups do not nominate candidates to run as their avowed representatives.
D) Interest groups have no clear political ideology.
E) Pluralists do not think interest groups are necessary for democracy to function.

Question 11

Which party won most presidential elections from 1932, during the Great Depression, through the election of 1964, when the turbulent 1960s created the environment for a major political realignment?

A) Democratic
B) Tea
C) Populist
D) Republican
E) Liberal

Question 12

Which of the following lays out the party's core beliefs and policy proposals?

A) Agenda
B) Charter
C) Constitution
D) Party platform
E) White paper

Question 13

When an election elicits a sharp change in the existing patterns of party loyalty among groups of voters, it is called which of the following?

A) A platform election
B) A decisive election
C) A critical election
D) A definitive election
E) A partisan election

Question 14

From 1832 to 1856, which two parties dominated American politics and presidential elections?

A) Democrats and Democratic-Republicans
B) Democrats and Republicans
C) Democrats and Whigs
D) Republicans and Democratic-Republicans
E) Republicans and Whigs

Question 15

Just prior to the Civil War, which party was born from a coalition of antislavery Liberty Party members, Free Soilers, and antislavery northern Democrats?

A) Southern Democratic Party
B) Republican Party
C) Progressive Party
D) Democratic Party
E) Libertarian Party

Question 16

The main purpose of a political party is to do which of the following in order to control government and implement its policies?

A) Nominate candidates
B) Win elections
C) Shape the judiciary
D) Discuss policy
E) Register voters

Question 17

The first political parties in the United States, the Federalists and Anti-Federalists, had opposing views related to which of the following?

A) Prohibition of the slave trade and slavery
B) Importance of economic interests in leaders
C) Amount of power that should be granted to the national government
D) Types of taxation permitted by the various levels of government
E) Role of religion in government

Question 18

The Republican Party was established to deal with which of the following issues?

A) Taxes
B) Slavery
C) School prayer
D) Free trade
E) Silver

Question 19

Which of the following best describes realignment?

A) It is of necessity tied to specific elections.
B) It takes place when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance.
C) It takes place when one dominant party replaces another one.
D) It took place on schedule in 2004.
E) It has been predicted as inevitable in the foreseeable future.

Question 20

What term is used to describe the phenomenon when voters adjust their long-term allegiance from one party to another in response to ideological changes?

A) Party identification
B) Moving to the center
C) Liberalization
D) Party alignment
E) Realignment

Question 21

The adoption of which of the following would permit multiple parties to acquire seats in Congress because representation would be based on the percentage of votes that they receive in national elections?

A) Divided representation
B) Patronage
C) Australian ballots
D) Proportional representation
E) Ticket splitting

Question 22

Which of the following best describes the reason that the two-party system has endured in the United States?

A) Constitutional provision for a bipartisan system that mirrors the bicameral legislature
B) Prevalence of single-member electoral districts
C) Prevalence of multimember electoral districts
D) Rules of proportional representation
E) Constitutional restriction on the speech of third-party candidates

Question 23

Which of the following is true of a winner-take-all electoral system?

A) The candidate who gets the most votes wins.
B) One must get a majority of votes cast to win.
C) Votes are allocated on a proportional basis.
D) Only parties receiving more than 5% of the vote are allocated seats.
E) A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.

Question 24

One of the most convincing explanations for the persistence of the two-party system in the United States lies in its use of which of the following?

A) Single winners chosen by an absolute majority of votes
B) Multiple winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes
C) Multiple winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes
D) Single winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes
E) Single winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes

Question 25

Since the present two-party system was established, how many minor-party candidates have been elected to the presidency?

A) Zero
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) Four

Question 26

Which of the following occurs in a proportional representation electoral system?

A) Candidates for office run in single-seat, winner-take-all districts.
B) Political parties win seats in a legislature based on the proportion of the vote they receive.
C) Election results are roughly proportional to the amount of money raised by each party.
D) Parties win a proportion of seats in a legislature, weighted to give small parties a larger share.
E) The top three parties in an election divide the government proportionally between them.

Question 27

Why are elections based on a plurality system discouraging to new party formation?

A) Plurality requires each party to be as narrowly based as possible, leaving little room for new parties.
B) Plurality gives an advantage to savvy political unknowns who can grab the media spotlight.
C) Plurality requires parties to form alliances with other parties to win elections.
D) Only parties receiving more than 5% of the vote are allocated seats.
E) Under this winner-take-all system, no incentive is given for finishing second.

Question 28

The system by which legislative seats are awarded to a party in proportion to the vote that party wins in an election is called what type of representation?

A) Majority
B) Proportional
C) Bipartisan
D) Electoral
E) Common

Question 29

Minor political parties that present an alternative to the two dominant political parties in the American political system are known as which of the following?

A) Factions
B) Third party
C) Alternative parties
D) Right wingers
E) Choice parties

Question 30

Why was the presidential election of 1912 unique?

A) The Democratic Party temporarily split in two.
B) There were three significant contenders for the presidency.
C) Two Roosevelts ran against each other.
D) All of the major parties opposed progressivism.
E) The election was decided in the House of Representatives.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the American electoral system?

A) A winner-take-all, or plurality, system
B) Proportional representation
C) One-party dominance of elections
D) Majoritarianism
E) Multimember constituencies

Question 32

Which of the following is true of federal and state laws with regard to third parties?

A) They have encouraged third parties to get candidates on the ballot.
B) They let third parties get fewer signatures to place their candidates on the ballot than major parties.
C) The two major parties have a clear advantage because the laws have fewer obstacles for them.
D) The federal laws have made it easy for third- or minor-party candidates to get federal matching funds.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 33

Which of the following best describes the views of many political scientists and scholars on third parties?

A) They are incapable of effective grassroots organization.
B) They have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
C) They serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups and prevent major confrontations and political unrest.
D) They can come into existence only if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
E) They can come into existence only if they split off from one of the major political parties.

Question 34

Which of the following is the least likely reason that the two-party system has dominated the American political landscape?

A) It has dominated due to political socialization and practical considerations.
B) It has dominated due to the winner-take-all electoral system.
C) State and federal laws favor the two major parties.
D) It has dominated due to the historical foundations of the system.
E) Third parties are illegal in many jurisdictions.

Question 35

The winner-take-all principle can be observed in the United States when which of the following selects the president and the vice president?

A) Party elders
B) Electoral college
C) National committee
D) Party-in-government
E) Voters in each state

Question 36

Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is true?

A) They have been relatively inactive throughout the history of presidential elections.
B) They generally downplay ideology in favor of winning elections.
C) They are discouraged by the election laws in many states.
D) They have been increasingly more important in many national elections, most recently in 2004.
E) They do not need to meet minimum signature requirements in order to appear on ballots.

Question 37

Proportional representation tends to do which of the following?

A) Base election results on the winner-take-all approach
B) Award office to the single candidate who wins the most votes
C) Only be used in the United States
D) Force interest groups to work within the two major parties
E) Perpetuate several political parties

Question 38

An electoral system that assigns one seat in a legislative body to represent citizens who live in a district is known as which of the following?

A) Single-member plurality system
B) Proportional representation system
C) Winner-take-all system
D) Disproportional representation system
E) Two-party system

Question 39

Which of the following best describes the populist movement, which supported inflation to reduce the value of outstanding debts?

A) Part of the Republican Party of Reconstruction
B) The initial platform for women's right to vote
C) Supported by urban working-class voters
D) Able to decisively alter national government policies
E) Formed to champion the interests of small farmers

Question 40

The American electoral system can be described as both a single-member plurality system and which of the following?

A) No-party system
B) Two-party system
C) Multiparty system
D) Three-party system
E) Single-party system

Question 41

When do voters favor one-party control of the presidency and Congress?

A) When there is general agreement on national priorities between the parties
B) When it is wartime
C) When their party is in control
D) When unemployment is low
E) When it is not an election year

Question 42

Evaluate the different functions of political parties in the American system of government.

Question 43

Which of the following would tend to detract from a party's national convention acting as its "supreme governing body"?

A) It is small in size.
B) It only meets once every four years.
C) All of the delegates are appointed by members of Congress.
D) It holds secret meetings.
E) It meets for several months.

Question 44

At each national convention, a political party drafts what document that outlines the party's policies, positions, and principles?

A) Ordinance
B) Caucus
C) Constitution
D) Platform
E) Treaty

Question 45

Which of the following is the lowest layer of official party machinery?

A) The local organization supported by district leaders, precinct or ward captains, and party workers
B) The state party chairperson and committees
C) The national campaign chairperson's volunteers
D) The White House interns
E) The national convention delegates

Question 46

Explain why political parties formed in the United States. Discuss how their strength and importance has changed over time.

Question 47

Which of the following best describes the system of patronage?

A) Another name for representation
B) Only occurred at the national level
C) Ended by the time of the Civil War
D) Rewarded party faithful with government jobs and contracts
E) Guarantees mentors for newly elected officials

Question 48

Analyze the differences between a political party and an interest group, being sure to provide examples.

Question 49

Which of the following models of democracy believes that political parties are essential in making government responsive to public opinion?

A) Procedural
B) Substantive
C) Majoritarian
D) Pluralist
E) Responsible

Question 50

If a person wanted to be influential in his or her party, it would be best to be a member of which of the following?

A) National convention
B) National committee
C) Ward committee
D) Precinct committee
E) District committee

Question 51

George Washington argued that parties were harmful to the United States. Assess his argument, taking a stance either with or against his point of view and providing evidence for your position.

Question 52

Analyze the role of the Great Depression in shifting voting patterns.

Question 53

Evaluate the ideological differences between the Federalists led by Alexander Hamilton and the Democratic Republicans led by Thomas Jefferson.

Question 54

What is at the top of the party organization with its members chosen by each state party organization?

A) Campaign committees
B) National committees
C) Party caucuses
D) Officials
E) State central committees

Question 55

Political parties used the patronage system as a way to do which of the following?

A) Shrink party loyalty
B) Gain access to Congress
C) Build party loyalty
D) Increase party disunity
E) Gain access to interest groups

Question 56

Analyze the differences between the modern Democratic Party and the Republican Party on economic and social issues.

Question 57

The task of planning the next campaign and convention, obtaining financial contributions, and publicizing the national party belongs to which of the following?

A) National chairperson
B) Presidential nominee
C) State chairperson
D) State committee
E) Local delegation

Question 58

A centralized organization that dominated local politics by controlling elections, sometimes by illegal means, is known as which of the following?

A) Party ideology
B) Campaign committee
C) Party machine
D) Party conference
E) Party government

Question 59

Political parties should present clear and coherent programs to voters. This is one of the four principles of which of the following?

A) Responsible party government
B) Partisan party government
C) Republican party government
D) Primary party government
E) Democratic party government

Question 60

The organizational structure of both political parties reflects which of the following concepts?

A) Unitary
B) Autocracy
C) Federal
D) Parliamentary
E) Congressional

Question 61

Explain what a party machine is and how such machines generally lost power over time.

Question 62

Evaluate the ability of third parties to cause change in the U.S. political system.

Question 63

Analyze the relationship of the national, state, and local party organizations to each other. Include organizational examples of each type.

Question 64

Analyze the factors that reinforce the two-party system in the United States.

Question 65

Evaluate the two-party system in the United States. Is proportional representation a better option?

Question 66

Summarize the major explanations for why the United States features a two-party system and why it has remained stable for so long.

Question 67

Describe the principles of responsible party government and how well they are being achieved in American politics today.

Question 68

Evaluate the extent to which a party's national convention can act as a party's "supreme governing body."

Question 69

Evaluate the degree to which party identification changed among white southerners from 1952 to the present.