Deck 4: Diagnosis Assessment and Study of Mental Disorders

Question 1

From a categorical perspective, a diagnosis is defined by ____ that outline how many and what features of a mental disorder must be present.

A) best practices
B) models
C) conventions
D) rules

Answer 1

rules

Question 2

According to the DSM, a(n) ____ is a group of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral symptoms that occur within a person.

A) benchmark
B) prognosis
C) syndrome
D) cluster

Answer 2

cluster

Question 3

According to your text, diagnoses are critical because they may suggest

A) which treatment is most effective.
B) what insurance company should be approached to pay.
C) whether or not the person should be criminally committed.
D) how long the person has been incompetent.

Answer 3

which treatment is most effective.

Question 4

The categorical approach to the diagnosis of mental disorders commonly used in the United States is the

A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Symptoms.
C) Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
D) Statistical Manual of Mental Symptoms.

Question 5

The ____ approach rests on recognizing large classes of frequently observed syndromes.

A) prognostic
B) categorical
C) labeling
D) observational

Question 6

According to your text, a key advantage of providing a diagnosis is that

A) it maintains sensitivity to the uniqueness of individuals.
B) the resulting stigmatization may improve treatment adherence.
C) standard rules are provided for defining mental disorders.
D) diagnosis eliminates the necessity for assessment.

Question 7

Since Hal only has two symptoms of depression, and a diagnosis of the disorder requires that four symptoms be present, a clinician operating on the basis of the medical model would

A) consider these symptoms' severity.
B) request a second opinion.
C) not diagnose Hal with the disorder.
D) perform further testing.

Question 8

Several abnormal behaviors must be present at the same time and ____ for someone to qualify for a diagnosis of a mental disorder.

A) cause significant problems
B) have no physiological basis
C) not respond to medication
D) have some genetic component

Question 9

According to the DSM-5, mental disorders

A) do not have underlying physical causes.
B) rarely cause emotional distress.
C) do not include culturally-sanctioned responses to a specific event.
D) include symptoms caused by normal developmental changes.

Question 10

An advantage of diagnosis is that

A) the criteria for defining mental disorders are very flexible.
B) communicating information with other professionals is easier.
C) labeling people lets them know what you expect from them.
D) it reduces the likelihood that the person will experience stigma.

Question 11

Arranging mental disorders into broad categories or classes based on similar features is known as

A) diagnosis.
B) classification.
C) evaluation.
D) categorization.

Question 12

With respect to mental disorders, a(n) ____ is a large class of frequently observed syndromes composed of abnormal behaviors or features that occur in a person.

A) diagnosis
B) cluster
C) bucket
D) category

Question 13

Recognition that five of nine main symptoms of depression are present may lead to a(n)

A) psychosocial feature analysis.
B) unsatisfactory conclusion.
C) categorical label.
D) diagnosis of depression.

Question 14

Mental disorders reflect dysfunction in

A) emotion, cognition, and behavior.
B) unobservable patterns in actions or thoughts.
C) physical and metaphysical functioning.
D) who we are and what we already know.

Question 15

Managed care agencies rely on ____ to reimburse clients for mental health services.

A) treatment modality
B) clinicians suggestion
C) diagnostic codes
D) prevalence rates

Question 16

When mental health professionals focus on dimensions, they are looking at

A) whether the disorder is biological or psychological.
B) a continuum or spectrum.
C) an all or none phenomenon.
D) what disorder the symptoms are consistent with.

Question 17

If you were diagnosed with a strange-sounding disease, you would likely seek more information. A benefit of diagnoses is that they help to

A) ease the sense of uniqueness that people may feel.
B) categorize people with a disorder.
C) stigmatize people with the disorder.
D) allow people with a disorder to self-diagnose.

Question 18

The clinical assessment process begins with a(n)

A) assessment.
B) referral.
C) diagnosis.
D) physical exam.

Question 19

Emile is trying to develop a new way of organizing and thinking about mental disorders. He decides he will have two broad categories that deal with either mood or cognition, and cross those with two other broad categories indicating whether or not the person has dysfunction that is mild or severe. This will create four possible categories for disorders to fall in. Emile is working on a(n) ____ system for mental disorders.

A) assessment
B) classification
C) dimensional
D) cultural

Question 20

Lidia thinks that mental disorders fall into broad categories. Cherise disagrees, arguing that mental disorders are all quite similar but vary in degree. Lidia takes a(n) ____ approach, while Cherise takes a(n) ____ approach to mental disorders.

A) classification; dimensional
B) dimensional; classification
C) assessment; treatment
D) treatment; assessment

Question 21

Which type of validity refers to how adequately test or interview items measure various aspects of a variable or diagnosis?

A) predictive
B) concurrent
C) content
D) construct

Question 22

How adequately test or interview items measure a variable, construct, or diagnosis is known as

A) construct validity.
B) kind current validity.
C) content validity.
D) predictive validity.

Question 23

Which type of reliability refers to the relationship among test items that purport to measure the same variable?

A) internal consistency
B) test-retest
C) interrater
D) devalued

Question 24

Administering or conducting assessment measures in the same way for everyone is referred to as

A) validation.
B) reliability.
C) standardization.
D) diagnosis.

Question 25

Jansen has developed a scale to assess childhood anxiety. Critics of the scale say that some items on the scale have nothing to do with anxiety at all. Jansen could do a study establishing the ____ of the scale to address these critics.

A) test-retest reliability
B) interrater reliability
C) construct reliability
D) internal consistency

Question 26

Kelly is taking an IQ test. The test has a very strict protocol; she only gets 15 minutes for each section of the test, and all the items are presented to her in the same order as they are to any other person taking the test. The scoring is very objective, and Kelly's answers are scored using the same criteria anyone else's answers are scored against. All of these procedures reflect the test's

A) standardization.
B) validity.
C) reliability.
D) accuracy.

Question 27

An assessment instrument has good test-retest reliability when its scores

A) are consistent across some period of time.
B) diverge in ways that are clinically significant.
C) yield the same diagnosis no matter who administers the assessment.
D) yield the same diagnoses as do other assessment instruments.

Question 28

The most common assessment technique used to solicit a wide range of information about mental disorders is the

A) survey.
B) experiment.
C) interview.
D) assessment review.

Question 29

The degree to which test or interview items actually cover aspects of the variable or diagnosis under study is ____; while ____ refers to the extent to which the results of a test can accurately anticipate a future event.

A) coverage validity; future validity
B) item analysis content; future behavior validity
C) content validity; predictive validity
D) construct validity; predictive consistency

Question 30

A judgment about whether a test or interview has a relationship to other measures other measures of the same phenomenon is known as

A) construct validity.
B) consensus approval.
C) this and that validity.
D) construct approval.

Question 31

The validity of a test indicates

A) whether there is agreement about its purpose.
B) how well it measures what it is supposed to measure.
C) how consistent the scores are.
D) whether it can be directly connected to treatment.

Question 32

Which type of validity refers to whether test or interview results relate to important current features or characteristics?

A) concurrent validity
B) predictive validity
C) content validity
D) construct validity

Question 33

Consistency of scores or responses on evaluation is known as

A) validity.
B) standardization.
C) reliability.
D) accuracy.

Question 34

Quentin has a new client, and assesses the client's intelligence level using an IQ test at an initial assessment appointment. About six months later, Quentin repeats all the assessments. In doing so, he finds that the IQ test score at the second assessment is very similar to the score from the first assessment. This suggests the IQ test has good ____ reliability.

A) test-retest
B) interrater
C) internal consistency
D) content

Question 35

If we are evaluating a person's strengths and weaknesses in order to understand the problem at hand and develop a treatment plan, then we are performing a(n)

A) cultural interview.
B) clinical assessment.
C) axis prognosis.
D) standardization.

Question 36

Interrater reliability in clinical diagnosis has been demonstrated when

A) two raters are in high agreement for diagnosis.
B) several observers have a moderate agreement.
C) two or more interviewers both need a second opinion.
D) two observers use identical language and description.

Question 37

Marnie tells her colleague, "I just developed a new measure for anxiety disorders." Her colleague looks over the items on Marnie's new scale, and says, "But these items don't measure anxiety, they measure mood! Your scale lacks ____ validity!"

A) construct
B) content
C) predictive
D) concurrent

Question 38

A(n) ____ allows an interviewer to ask any question in any order that comes to mind.

A) structured interview
B) unstructured interview
C) case study
D) experimental analysis

Question 39

The DSM-5 contains a Cultural Formulation Interview to help clinicians

A) evaluate the severity of a person's symptoms within his/her cultural norms.
B) assess if the client will be able to form a positive therapeutic alliance outside of his/her culture.
C) gain information about how culture affects a person's symptoms and treatment.
D) determine if a person qualifies for a particular treatment or not.

Question 40

Martin wants to establish the construct validity of his new scale, which he believes measures problems with attention in children. The higher the score on his new scale, the more attention problems the respondent should have. Which of the following findings would help support his case?

A) a positive correlation with an existing measure of ADHD
B) a negative correlation with an existing measure of ADHD
C) a lack of correlation with an existing measure of mood problems
D) a lack of correlation with an existing measure of neurocognitive problems

Question 41

An MMPI-2 interpretation does not rely on a single score but rather a(n) ____ of the person.

A) profile
B) composite
C) extracted sketch
D) key quality analysis

Question 42

Barry has been asked to tell stories about what he sees on a series of cards. A properly trained mental health professional can learn

A) about various childhoods from these stories.
B) about Barry's personality from these stories.
C) about his ability to tell stories.
D) Barry's aptitude for personality integration.

Question 43

Jess is interviewing a new client. She asks the client whatever questions come to mind so that the interview kind of "flows." There is no planned sequence to her questions, and the content of the questions are different from what she would ask another client. Jess is performing a(n) ____ interview.

A) structured
B) unstructured
C) responsive
D) guided

Question 44

Because structured diagnostic interviews are ____, they are most common to ____ settings.

A) short; research
B) short; clinical
C) time-consuming; research
D) time-consuming; clinical

Question 45

Collin is taking an intelligence test. He is shown an image and has to select which of four images would match that if it were rotated 90 degrees. Collin is probably taking an item on the ____ subscale.

A) emotional
B) performance
C) verbal
D) physical

Question 46

An intelligence test that is "culture free"

A) does not need developing because they are all culture free.
B) would involve arbitrary value systems and biases.
C) has been developed as well as one to measure pure potential.
D) has not yet been developed.

Question 47

Which tests are types of projective personality assessment?

A) MMPI-2 and Structured Clinical Interview
B) Rorschach and Thematic Apperception Test
C) computerized axial tomography and functional MRI
D) functional analysis and naturalistic observation

Question 48

Nina is looking at an inkblot. She focuses on the upper right corner of the card as she describes what she sees in it. She tells the examiner she sees a dog in that part of the inkblot and largely ignores the rest of the inkblot. Which of the following BEST illustrates the content of Nina's response?

A) the fact that she says she sees a dog
B) the fact that she focuses on the upper right corner of the inkblot
C) the fact that she answers the examiner
D) the fact that she ignores a large portion of the inkblot

Question 49

Most intelligent tests include multiple subscales to measure

A) specific aspects of cognitive functioning.
B) the possibility of cultural bias.
C) different theoretical formulations of intelligence.
D) differences in intelligence related to age and sex.

Question 50

The Swiss psychiatrist who experimented with inkblots to diagnose psychological problems was

A) Skinner.
B) Freud.
C) Rorschach.
D) Wechsler.

Question 51

A potential problem with questionnaires such as the MMPI-2 is that

A) some people might wish to place themselves in a favorable light.
B) there is no evidence that they are clinically useful.
C) clinicians have never really trusted the idea of computer scoring.
D) people can easily fake having illnesses without being detected.

Question 52

Sentence completion, drawing tests, ambiguous stimuli identification, and the TAT are all types of

A) arbitrary testing.
B) projective testing.
C) objective personality testing.
D) subjective patterning.

Question 53

Gregory took a test that measured a full scale or total score, a verbal score, and the performance score. He most likely took a(n)

A) language test.
B) IQ test.
C) TAT.
D) projective test.

Question 54

Ratings and diagnoses from ____ are generally reliable across raters, and have high content validity because they are based on specific criteria.

A) structured interviews
B) unstructured interviews
C) case studies
D) experimental analyses

Question 55

According to your text, the two most common forms of clinical assessment are probably

A) projective techniques and the TAT.
B) immersion reflection and symptom recording.
C) interviews and intelligence tests.
D) structured interviews and open interviews.

Question 56

A person's needs, personality, and/or conflicts can be assessed using ambiguous stimuli such as

A) algebraic equations.
B) vocabulary.
C) inkblots.
D) role-playing.

Question 57

Which type of tests require mental health professionals to use their skill and judgment to interpret an individual's responses?

A) interpretive
B) projective
C) standardized
D) scientific

Question 58

According to your text, which is the most common form of clinical assessment after the interview?

A) intelligence tests
B) personality inventories
C) projective personality measures
D) biological assessments

Question 59

A strength of the MMPI-2 is that it

A) yields information on a range of disorders.
B) was standardized with institutionalized subjects.
C) has a different profile for everyone who takes it.
D) uses statistics to minimize criticisms.

Question 60

Pippa is taking an intelligence test. On the particular part of the test she is working on, the examiner reads her a list of numbers. She has to try to remember them and repeat them back in the order in which they were read. Each list is a little bit longer than the last one. Pippa is working on the ____ subtest.

A) vocabulary
B) similarities
C) digit span
D) mental rotation

Question 61

The Halstead-Reitan is a(n)

A) intelligence test.
B) neuropsychological assessment.
C) projective test.
D) neurophysiological assessment.

Question 62

The main biological assessment of dysfunctions in specific neurotransmitter systems is

A) brain chemical analysis.
B) neurochemical assessment.
C) neurobiological homeostasis.
D) neuroendocrine psychopharmacology.

Question 63

Lorrie's therapist has been performing a functional analysis that focuses on antecedents and consequences. These observations are likely part of a(n)

A) observational learning program.
B) behavioral assessment.
C) functional modification.
D) operant conditioning program.

Question 64

On the MMPI-2, high scores on the ____ scale indicate a tendency to use physical and mental problems to avoid conflicts or responsibility.

A) Masculinity- femininity (Mf)
B) Hysteria (Hy)
C) Paranoia (Pa)
D) Psychasthenia (Pt)

Question 65

The physiological and cognitive characteristics of a client that may help a therapist understand that client are called ____ variables.

A) preliminary
B) organismic
C) conditional
D) behavioral

Question 66

Which type of assessment technique is most accurate in identifying specific changes in neurological functioning?

A) brain imaging
B) self-monitoring
C) controlled observation
D) functional analysis

Question 67

Which brain imaging method provides the highest-quality images without use of radiation?

A) CT
B) CAT
C) MRI
D) PET

Question 68

Which brain imaging techniques can be used to measure brain activity rather than just brain structures?

A) CT and MRI
B) MRI and X-ray
C) EEG and EKG
D) fMRI and PET

Question 69

A common physiological assessment that measures heart rate is a(n)

A) galvanic skin conductor.
B) electroencephalogram.
C) electrocardiogram.
D) neurochemical assessment.

Question 70

Rudy takes the MMPI-2 and receives a high L score. This indicates that Rudy

A) is quite likeable.
B) may have been lying to paint himself in a positive light.
C) has exceptional leadership potential.
D) is extremely liberal when it comes to political positions.

Question 71

The purpose of ____ assessment is to measure overt responses shown by a person.

A) clinical
B) behavioral
C) operant
D) consequential

Question 72

The TAT is generally used to

A) measure intelligence.
B) make diagnoses.
C) identify personality themes.
D) locate areas of brain damage.

Question 73

In these functional analyses of behavior, which one illustrates an antecedent to a client's behavior?

A) Driving on the freeway always prompts a panic attack for Elliot.
B) When Janae has a panic attack, she avoids stressful situations.
C) Veronica can get attention if she acts depressed.
D) Thomas learns that refusing to clean his room will cause his mother to clean it.

Question 74

Direct observation of a client in his/her natural environment is referred to as ____ observation.

A) directed
B) experimental
C) consensual
D) naturalistic

Question 75

In ____ observation, the client is observed in situations that approximate real life.

A) directed
B) controlled
C) consensual
D) naturalistic

Question 76

When a client observes and records his or her own behaviors, emotions, and thoughts, an assessment known as _____ is being used.

A) naturalistic observation
B) controlled observation
C) organismic monitoring
D) self-monitoring

Question 77

What do neurochemical and neuropsychological assessments have in common?

A) Both are types of brain imaging.
B) Both involve projective techniques.
C) Both are indirect measures of neurological activity and function.
D) Both require that the subject be exposed to potentially harmful substances.

Question 78

Which assessment method involves evaluating bodily changes possibly associated with certain mental conditions?

A) psychophysiological
B) neurophysiological
C) bodily disruption
D) common sense

Question 79

Jay is involved in the inquiry phase of the Rorschach test and is currently asking the client about ____, or the aspects of the card that prompted a client's response, such as the inkblot's form, color, texture, apparent movement, and shading.

A) manifestations
B) deviations
C) determinants
D) constraints

Question 80

Edward is undergoing galvanic skin response testing, a type of ____ assessment.

A) psychological
B) physiological.
C) neurochemical
D) psychophysiological