Deck 33: Person-To-Person Microbial Diseases

Question 1

Which of the following diseases is streptococcal in origin?

A) rheumatic fever
B) scarlet fever
C) impetigo
D) all of the above

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Tuberculoid Hansen's disease is caused by the pathogen

A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B) Listeria monocytogenes.
C) Mycobacterium leprae.
D) all of the above.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis, also known as "strep throat," is

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus lactis.
C) Streptococcus mutans.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following statements apply to diphtheria?

A) Toxigenicity is associated with lysogenization by bacteriophage fi.
B) Previous infection provides resistance to the effects of diphtheria exotoxin.
C) The diphtheria toxin inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis.
D) All of the above apply to diphtheria.

Question 5

The most prevalent human infectious diseases are caused by

A) protozoans.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) fungi.

Question 6

The DTaP vaccine contains

A) diphtheria toxoid.
B) bacterial endotoxin derivatives.
C) purified bacterial DNA.
D) heat- killed Bordetella pertussis cells.

Question 7

Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of

A) leukocidin.
B) catalase.
C) coagulase.
D) hemolysins.

Question 8

Which disease test will show a false positive when immunized with the BCG attenuated virus?

A) pneumococcal pneumonia
B) whooping cough
C) diphtheria
D) tuberculosis

Question 9

Which of the following does NOT apply to bacterial pathogens affecting the respiratory tract?

A) Most are normally transmitted person to person.
B) Humans are the only reservoir for most bacterial respiratory pathogens.
C) Most respiratory bacterial pathogens do not respond to antibiotic therapy.
D) Some often initiate secondary infections that can be life threatening.

Question 10

Impetigo is due to an infection caused by

A) Staphylococcus aureus but not Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes but not Staphylococcus aureus.
C) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) neither Staphylococcus aureus nor Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 11

The CD4 molecule is

A) a cell- surface protein receptor for HIV.
B) found only on T- helper cells.
C) an HIV surface glycoprotein.
D) all of the above.

Question 12

Which of the following viruses may cause the common cold?

A) rhinoviruses
B) adenoviruses
C) coronaviruses
D) all of the above

Question 13

Which of the following is TRUE about tuberculosis?

A) For most individuals, cell- mediated immunity is lifelong.
B) The disease agent infects about one- third of the world's population.
C) Although good chemotherapy is available, mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid and other drugs is increasing.
D) All of the above are true of tuberculosis.

Question 14

Rheumatic fever is

A) triggered by cell- surface antigens on Streptococcus pyogenes cells that are similar to heart valve and joint antigens.
B) a poststreptococcal disease.
C) an autoimmune disease.
D) all of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following toxins or extracellular enzymes is produced by Staphylococcus epidermidis?

A) coagulase
B) hemolysins
C) enterotoxin
D) none of the above

Question 16

Which of the following statements is TRUE about HIV infections?

A) The cDNA can integrate into the host chromosome.
B) The viral nucleocapsid of the virus enters the host cell when the viral and host membranes fuse.
C) T- helper cells are greatly reduced in number.
D) All of the above are true of HIV infections.

Question 17

Which disease causes over 1.6 million deaths per year worldwide, which is approximately 11% of all deaths related to infectious diseases?

A) tuberculosis
B) diphtheria
C) pneumococcal pneumonia
D) whooping cough

Question 18

Of the following, which is the MOST common AIDS- associated opportunistic disease?

A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B) cryptococcosis
C) histoplasmosis
D) cryptosporidiosis

Question 19

A pyrazidine derivative holds promise for preventing

A) pneumonia.
B) AIDS.
C) the common cold.
D) hepatitis.

Question 20

Infectious hepatitis is caused by infection with hepatitis virus.

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E

Question 21

Which of the following are group A Streptococcus (GAS)?

A) Streptococcus pneumonia
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus viridans
D) Streptococcus aureus

Question 22

Whooping cough is frequently observed in

A) elderly residents of nursing homes.
B) health care providers.
C) individuals with compromised immunity.
D) children under 19 years of age.

Question 23

Once a person has been infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the individual

A) acquires no immunity, and thus could be reinfected immediately.
B) requires immunization by an antiserum.
C) requires immunization by a vaccine.
D) acquires transient immunity, which prevents subsequent infection for about a year.

Question 24

The unique antigenic determinants of the 90 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found

A) on the cell- surface M proteins.
B) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.
C) on the capsular polysaccharides.
D) in the bacterial cell wall.

Question 25

Erythromycin is put in the eyes of newborns specifically to prevent

A) ocular herpes.
B) syphilis.
C) gonorrhea.
D) a chlamydial infection.

Question 26

Serious acute cases of diphtheria are treated with antibiotics and

A) diphtheria toxoid.
B) diphtheria antitoxin.
C) diphtheria toxin.
D) all of the above.

Question 27

Which statement is TRUE about Streptococcus pneumoniae and the lung infection it causes?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread from the focus of infection as a bacteremia.
B) Infection with any strain of encapsulated virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae provides long- lasting immunity to all encapsulated virulent strains.
C) Penicillin and erythromycin are the "last chance" drugs for treatment of streptococcal pneumonia.
D) Streptococcal pneumonia is not as serious as most people think; if left untreated, it usually runs its course in about a week to ten days.

Question 28

Which of the following is TRUE about whooping cough?

A) The etiological agent will grow on blood- glycerol- potato extract agar.
B) A simple latex bead agglutination test is available for positive identification.
C) The exotoxin, which induces the synthesis of cAMP, is at least partially responsible for the events that lead to host tissue damage.
D) All of the above are true of whooping cough.

Question 29

Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 30

Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) affects the synthesis of

A) globular proteins of the cell membrane.
B) mycolic acid.
C) linoleic acid.
D) DNA transcription.

Question 31

Despite the availability of chemotherapy for treating gonorrhea, the incidence of this disease remains high because

A) infections in females may easily go unnoticed.
B) the use of oral contraceptives can increase colonization by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) antigenic switches are common.
D) of all of the above.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is TRUE?

A) Chlamydial diseases are less prevalent than gonorrhea.
B) Chlamydial diseases are not reportable diseases.
C) Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 33

The most common infectious disease(s) is/are

A) colds.
B) influenza.
C) hepatitis.
D) gonorrhea.

Question 34

Encapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are particularly pathogenic, because they

A) produce exotoxin A.
B) produce M protein surface antigens.
C) are potentially very invasive.
D) produce exotoxin B.

Question 35

The presence of gram- positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection of

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Bordetella pertussis.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Question 36

Hepatitis C can be treated in some patients by the drug ribavirin as well as

A) interferon y.
B) interferon a.
C) resveratrol.
D) rifampin.

Question 37

The diphtheria component of the DTP vaccine is a(n)

A) toxoid.
B) antitoxin.
C) toxin.
D) antitoxoid.

Question 38

Which of the following microbial groups is MOST resistant to desiccation due to their cell wall?

A) gram- positive
B) gram- negative
C) viruses
D) mycoplasmas

Question 39

Which of the following is associated with the influenza virus?

A) Antigenic shift is the term applied to a major change in a protein coat antigen.
B) Antigenic drift is the term applied to minor antigenic changes due to genetic variations such as point mutations.
C) Most infected individuals develop protective immunity to the infecting virus.
D) All of the above are associated with influenza virus.

Question 40

Which of the following drugs, chemotherapeutic agents against HIV, inhibits reverse transcriptase?

A) soluble CD4
B) azidothymidine
C) alpha interferon
D) ampligen

Question 41

The pseudomembrane of diphtheria is composed primarily of and .

Question 42

Patients infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in environments where drug resistance is expected or has already been identified usually have to take antibacterial drugs for six months to ensure the infectious agent is completely killed.

Question 43

Meningitis can be caused by , , , or infections.

Question 44

Nongonococcal urethritis may be caused by the protozoan .

Question 45

Staphylococcus aureus produces , an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells.

Question 46

The formation of streptococcal antigen- antibody complexes in the bloodstream during recovery from streptococcal infections can lead to acute glomerulonephritis, which is painless but can result in permanent kidney damage.

Question 47

Both Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae are frequently isolated from the upper respiratory tracts of healthy adults.

Question 48

To treat an established Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection, both antibiotics and must also be administered to treat the disease.

Question 49

In 1882, the causative agent of tuberculosis was identified by as .

Question 50

Most of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.

Question 51

Individuals who have active cases of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by
or near uninfected individuals.

Question 52

The causative agent of Hansen's disease is _.

Question 53

About 25% of patients with untreated diphtheria develop , which is due to the effect of diphtheria toxin on the heart muscle.

Question 54

The inflammatory response to Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection results in the production of a lesion called a(n) .

Question 55

The loss of CD4 T- helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection.

Question 56

Loeffler's medium inhibits the growth of most organisms and is commonly used to cultivate .

Question 57

Another name for pertussis is , and it is caused by the bacterium _.

Question 58

Transmission of Mycobacterium leprae involves both and routes.

Question 59

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of
.

Question 60

Resident staphylococci in the and _ seldom cause disease.

Question 61

Describe three antiretroviral drug types that are commonly used in highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).

Question 62

Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.

Question 63

The pink- red rash of scarlet fever may be caused by streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, C, and E, which are coded for on a lysogenic bacteriophage.

Question 64

Chickenpox, caused by a herpesvirus, results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.

Question 65

The influenza viral envelope is unique because it contains only one type of protein.

Question 66

A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.

Question 67

The availability of rapid antigen detection (RAD) systems for pathogenic streptococci has eliminated the need to culture Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 68

Describe which diseases human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause in males and females. What is the most common symptom of HPV infection, and why is this of concern?

Question 69

How is three- dimensional modeling helping to create drugs to prevent viruses from causing the common cold?

Question 70

More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.

Question 71

Most viral diseases are acute, self- limiting infections, but some can be problematic in healthy adults.

Question 72

Staphylococcal enterotoxin A is a superantigen that leads to a systemic inflammatory reaction known as toxic shock syndrome (TSS).

Question 73

The immune response is as important as or even more important than antibiotics in the elimination of Bordetella pertussis from the body.

Question 74

Infections by "flesh- eating bacteria" can occur when exotoxins A, B, C, and E and the bacterial surface M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes act as superantigens.

Question 75

In the context of the influenza virus, describe the mechanistic difference between an antigenic drift and an antigenic shift. Also indicate the result of each.

Question 76

A sudden onset of a headache, vomiting, and a stiff neck are all symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.

Question 77

The prevalence of penicillin- resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is localized almost exclusively in North America and western Europe.

Question 78

Describe the pathogenesis of HIV to explain how the number of CD4 lymphocytes decline in an ongoing HIV infection.

Question 79

In an HIV infection the TH cells and macrophages are not commonly infected.

Question 80

The organisms that cause pneumococcal pneumonia are rarely found as a part of the normal flora of healthy adults.