Deck 3: Federalism

Question 1

What is the basic premise of federalism?

A) Supreme executive power derives from a mandate from the masses.
B) Two or more governments share power and authority over the same land and people.
C) Supreme political authority remains with the states.
D) The national government has ultimate sovereignty over a country's land and people.
E) State and local governments may not exercise powers of their own that are independent of the national government.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following statements best describes federalism?

A) Two levels of government rule the same land and people.
B) The ultimate authority rests with the national government.
C) The ultimate authority rests with the state governments.
D) It does not promote self-government.
E) It was the most commonly used form of government around the world when adopted by the Framers.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The Constitution did not give Congress the authority to establish the Internal Revenue Service. Congress did so, however, to implement its power to "lay and collect taxes." This an example of which of the following types of power?

A) Implied
B) Delegated
C) Reserved
D) Expressed
E) Inherent

Answer 3

A

Question 4

What clause in the Constitution grants Congress the power to do whatever is necessary to execute its enumerated or expressed powers?

A) The elastic or necessary and proper clause
B) The supremacy clause
C) The concurrent clause
D) The reserved powers clause
E) The due process clause

Question 5

Which of the following classes of powers are not given to the federal government by the Constitution, nor reserved to the states?

A) Concurrent powers
B) Reserved powers
C) Implied powers
D) Enumerated powers
E) Inherent powers

Question 6

During the time of the Constitutional Convention, why was federalism an appealing compromise?

A) It prevented cities and states from being dominated by a single group or faction.
B) It maintained state traditions while creating a strong national government to handle common problems.
C) It allowed politicians to avoid issues of slavery and women's suffrage.
D) It permitted states to nullify actions of the national government.
E) It made the national government the focal point of dissatisfaction.

Question 7

Which of the following systems of government usually has a written constitution and divided authority between the central government and states?

A) Monarchy
B) Unitary system
C) Confederal system
D) Federalism
E) Oligarchy

Question 8

In a confederal system of government, the central government has which of the following?

A) Almost all the power
B) Equal power with the states/provinces
C) Supreme power over the states/provinces
D) Almost no real power except during times of war
E) Almost no real power

Question 9

In a federal political system, how is authority distributed?

A) It is always vested in a bicameral legislature.
B) It is divided between the central government and regional or subdivisional governments.
C) It is bestowed upon the central government, with no power being granted to the regional governments.
D) It is concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government.
E) It is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.

Question 10

Which of the following does the final provision in Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution, sometimes known as the elastic clause, state?

A) The inherent powers of Congress
B) Five ways that enumerated powers can be carried out
C) That Congress can make laws that are necessary and proper to carry out its enumerated powers
D) That Congress can declare war in situations that can be characterized as demanding flexibility
E) A flexible procedure for immediate removal of the president from office

Question 11

As it relates to the states, what does the full faith and credit clause mean?

A) It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws.
B) It returns persons fleeing justice back to their home state.
C) It honors the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states.
D) It extends to citizens of other states the privileges and immunities of its own citizens.
E) It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws and honor the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states.

Question 12

The advantages of a federal system of government include which of the following?

A) All Americans gain the benefit of uniform social services policies in every state.
B) The federal government becomes the focal point of political dissatisfaction for most citizens.
C) It is more practical to locate most power in one place.
D) State governments are frequently testing grounds for new governmental initiatives.
E) Smaller political units, such as states and cities, are less likely to be dominated by a single political group.

Question 13

The necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution is also known as which one of the following?

A) The supremacy clause
B) The confederal system
C) The commerce clause
D) The unitary system
E) The elastic clause

Question 14

What is the system of government in which sovereignty is constitutionally divided between the national and state governments?

A) Socialism
B) Nationalism
C) States' rights
D) Federalism
E) Confederal system

Question 15

Which of the following entities settles conflicts related to power sharing between the states and the national government?

A) The president
B) Committee of state governors
C) A congressional conference committee
D) The Supreme Court
E) The Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives

Question 16

What was the primary reason the Framers chose to unify the country?

A) Some form of union allows smaller entities to pool their resources together.
B) They wanted to revoke states' rights.
C) They wanted to create a unitary system.
D) Establishing a union allows larger states to dominate.
E) Unions allow for collective bargaining.

Question 17

Which of the following types of system consists of a league of independent states, each having essentially sovereign powers, and a central government with limited powers?

A) Unitary
B) Confederal
C) Federal
D) Authoritarian
E) Bicameral

Question 18

In a unitary system of government, the ultimate government authority is located on which of the following levels?

A) The state or provincial level
B) The local or municipal level
C) The regional level
D) The national or central level
E) The state or provincial level and the local or municipal level

Question 19

Which of the following best describes police power?

A) It is the authority to tax citizens.
B) It is reserved for the federal government to fight terrorism.
C) It is the states' rights to make laws that are prohibited by the U.S. Constitution in order to regulate commerce within their borders.
D) It is the power of local police to stop drivers suspected of being illegal immigrants.
E) It is the authority to legislate for the protection of the health, welfare, safety, and morals of the people that is delegated to the states.

Question 20

Which of the following systems of government allows the central government to make laws that are directly applicable to member states, and those states can choose not to support the laws?

A) Unitary
B) Federal
C) Authoritarian
D) Totalitarian
E) Confederal

Question 21

Which of the following statements regarding the Gibbons v. Ogden case is true?

A) The national government lost the power to regulate intrastate commerce.
B) State governments won the right to control navigation in interstate waters.
C) The power to regulate interstate commerce was determined to be an exclusive national power of the federal government.
D) The ruling provided the national government with decreasing power over economic affairs throughout the land.
E) The Supreme Court found that commerce was defined as the exchange of goods and not navigation or transport of people.

Question 22

What does it mean when a state government passes a law that forbids texting while operating a vehicle?

A) It is employing concurrent powers according to the Tenth Amendment.
B) It is delegating enumerated powers to the national government.
C) It is implementing inherent powers.
D) It is exercising police powers.
E) It is reserved for Congress to decide.

Question 23

In a federal system, which of the following powers are held jointly by the national and state governments?

A) Cooperative powers
B) Statutory powers
C) Reserved powers
D) Concurrent powers
E) Inherent powers

Question 24

Which of the following is the power to coin money, create naturalization laws, admit new states, and declare war?

A) Implied
B) Inferred
C) Inherent
D) Reserved
E) Enumerated

Question 25

Which of the following statements about most concurrent powers is true?

A) They were heavily debated by the southern states.
B) They prevent Congress from regulating business within specific states.
C) They have been held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
D) They encourage state governments to reach beyond their borders.
E) They are not specifically stated in the Constitution, but are only implied.

Question 26

Which of the following metaphors best describes cooperative federalism?

A) Layer cake
B) Sponge cake
C) Fruit cake
D) Marble cake
E) Bundt cake

Question 27

Which of the following gives Congress the power to regulate trade among the states?

A) The Bill of Rights
B) The commerce clause
C) The McCulloch v. Maryland decision
D) The necessary and proper clause
E) The Supreme Court

Question 28

How does the Tenth Amendment affect the distribution of power between the states and federal government?

A) It divides it equally between the national and state governments.
B) It separates power across the three branches of government.
C) It reserves power to the national government if not granted to the states.
D) It reserves power to the states if not granted to the national government.
E) It enumerates specific powers of the states and national governments.

Question 29

Which of the following metaphors best describes dual federalism?

A) Sponge cake
B) Layer cake
C) Fruit cake
D) Marble cake
E) Pineapple upside down cake

Question 30

If states lacked the power to tax, then how would state governments get their funding?

A) They would need to enter into treaties with foreign countries to obtain funding.
B) They would be in violation of the Constitution's provisions regarding interstate commerce.
C) They would depend on the federal government to be able to function.
D) They would pass the burden of funding their budgets to local governments.
E) They would depend upon private donations from individuals and corporations.

Question 31

Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power?

A) The power to tax
B) The power to declare war
C) The power to regulate interstate commerce
D) The power to negotiate treaties
E) The power to print money

Question 32

When Congress passed a tariff in 1828, why did South Carolina try to nullify it?

A) To assert the power of the state governments over the national government
B) To indicate that a state should have the ultimate authority over its citizens
C) To protect slavery
D) To increase the price of exported and imported goods
E) To assert the power of the state governments over the national government and to indicate that a state should have the ultimate authority over its citizens

Question 33

What is the constitutional provision that allows federal laws to take precedent over state laws?

A) Commerce clause
B) Supremacy clause
C) Concurrent powers
D) Reserve powers
E) Elastic clause

Question 34

What preemptive power is rooted in the Constitution that allows Congress to impose national priorities on states through national legislation?

A) The necessary and proper clause
B) The elastic clause
C) The full faith and credit clause
D) The supremacy clause
E) The establishment clause

Question 35

According to Article IV of the Constitution, which of the following best describes the full faith and credit clause?

A) Laws enacted by Congress
B) Treaties negotiated by the president of the United States
C) Civil acts and judicial decisions of other states
D) The decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court
E) Declarations of the UN Security Council

Question 36

When examining the Constitution, why are reserved powers not clearly defined?

A) The states had all the power when the Constitution was written because of the Articles of Confederation.
B) The national government was developing a detailed list but preferred to first establish a basic foundation.
C) The majority of power was to be retained by the people with individual rights taking priority over those of the state governments.
D) The issue of slavery prevented a list of specific powers from being drafted by the founders.
E) The founders intended the Supreme Court to evaluate the needs of the states on an ongoing basis.

Question 37

Why did the Founding Fathers incorporate the principle of privileges and immunities into the Constitution?

A) To guarantee that the national government provide equivalent shares of grant money to states
B) To ensure that state governments would not discriminate against another state's citizens
C) To safeguard that a person charged with a crime in another state be returned to that state for trial or imprisonment
D) To ensure that the public acts, records, and civil proceedings of each state are legal and binding in all states
E) To guarantee that public officials would receive equal treatment under the law

Question 38

Which constitutional clause prohibits states from establishing trade barriers, or leveling unequal taxes against goods from another state?

A) Necessary and proper clause
B) General welfare clause
C) Commerce clause
D) Full faith and credit clause
E) Supremacy clause

Question 39

What is the doctrine of dual federalism?

A) The function of government is determined by the people.
B) The federal government has more functions than the state governments.
C) The state governments have more functions than the federal government.
D) The state and federal governments have identical functions.
E) The state and federal governments have separate functions.

Question 40

Which of the following prevents states from using their powers to thwart national policy?

A) The supremacy clause
B) The necessary and proper clause
C) The general welfare clause
D) The federalist clause
E) The expressed powers clause

Question 41

What is the purpose of block grants or federal aid given to state or local governments?

A) It is to be divided into discrete "blocks" of grants, each limited to $100 million.
B) It is to be spent on a specific policy area decided on by the federal, state, and local governments.
C) It is to be spent in the way the state or local government decides to spend it.
D) It is to be tied to federal mandates that state or local governments must then implement or they will be taxed on the money.
E) It is to be contingent on state/local endorsement of so-called "social" federal legislation.

Question 42

Since Madison and the Framers were fearful that local majorities would infringe on the rights of local minorities, what did they prefer over local democracies?

A) A direct democracy at the national level
B) A large-scale democracy
C) A large-scale republic
D) Small-scale town meetings
E) A small-scale republic

Question 43

What was the central question in the McCulloch v. Maryland case?

A) Whether or not the executive branch had the power to institute a peacetime draft
B) Whether or not Congress had the power to establish a national bank
C) Whether or not Congress had the power to regulate commerce along major waterways
D) Whether or not the Supreme Court had the power to investigate the executive branch
E) Whether or not it should remove one of its own members from the Court

Question 44

What do governors have the ability to do with a line-item veto?

A) Sign and pass legislation in its entirety
B) Veto legislation in its entirety
C) Veto certain parts of spending bills without vetoing the entire bill
D) Propose specific provisions in legislation
E) Pass independent legislation

Question 45

Which of the following is a process that allows legislatures to put certain issues on the ballot for citizen approval and requires legislatures to seek citizen approval for certain actions by the legislature?

A) A New England town meeting
B) A recall
C) An initiative
D) A referendum
E) A retention election

Question 46

When state governments and the national government are seen as separate entities, how is dual federalism best characterized?

A) As a layer cake
B) As a marble cake
C) As a devil's food cake
D) As a cupcake
E) As an angel food cake

Question 47

What does the doctrine of dual federalism maintain?

A) The Supreme Court should resolve conflicts between the authority of the national government and the states.
B) The national government and the states have authority over defined and mutually exclusive policy areas.
C) The national government and the states should share authority equally in all policy areas.
D) The national government should initiate policies and then turn them over to the states for administration.
E) Any law passed by the national government is the supreme law of the land.

Question 48

Which of the following did President Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal include?

A) A laissez-faire plan to address unemployment and poverty issues
B) Large-scale emergency antipoverty programs
C) A hands-off approach to regulating labor relations
D) Open competition among businesses to improve the economy
E) Policies that strictly followed the interpretation of commerce in the Constitution

Question 49

Which of the following political ideologies favors the national government over the state governments?

A) Liberals
B) Conservatives
C) Socialists
D) Federalists
E) Traditionalists

Question 50

Which of the following terms describes how state governments and the national government work together to solve the nation's problems?

A) Collaborative
B) Cooperative
C) Distinctive
D) Dual
E) Categorical

Question 51

Which of the following chief justices worked to increase the power of the national government and to reduce the power of the states in the early part of the nineteenth century?

A) Warren Burger
B) John Marshall
C) William Rehnquist
D) Roger Taney
E) Earl Warren

Question 52

In the Dred Scott case, what did the Supreme Court decide that Congress had no power to do?

A) Prohibit slavery
B) Create a national bank
C) Control the sale of guns
D) Regulate navigable waterways
E) Issue grants-in-aid

Question 53

Which of the following is a requirement in federal legislation that forces state and local governments to comply with certain rules?

A) A waiver
B) An earmark
C) A federal mandate
D) A national agenda
E) A leverage package

Question 54

Which of the following is known as the transfer of government power from the national government to state governments?

A) Cooperative federalism
B) Revolution
C) Regression
D) Devolution
E) Dual federalism

Question 55

Which of the following did the early Supreme Court generally do under Chief Justice John Marshall?

A) It preserved states' rights.
B) It lessened trade powers between the states.
C) It issued conflicting decisions about the balance between national and state power.
D) It remained silent about federalism issues.
E) It increased national power.

Question 56

Which of the following is true of direct democracy?

A) It exists in all states and localities.
B) It provides an easy way to get items on the ballot.
C) It can be very costly to get items on the ballot.
D) It is no longer used in the states.
E) It exists at the national level.

Question 57

What are federal mandates?

A) They are rules for operation in the Supreme Court.
B) They are requirements attached to state laws to dispense state grants.
C) They are requirements in federal legislation that force states to comply with federal rules.
D) They are accompanied by federal funding to cover costs of the mandate.
E) They are unconstitutional acts by the states.

Question 58

Which of the following are given to state or local governments for specific programs or projects?

A) Block grants
B) Categorical grants
C) Mandates
D) Expressed powers
E) Inherent powers

Question 59

A government program that is funded by the national government but run and managed by state governments is emblematic of which of the following?

A) Dual federalism
B) Cooperative federalism
C) Enumerated powers
D) Reserved powers
E) The supremacy clause

Question 60

Which of the following political ideologies has traditionally favored state governments over the federal government?

A) Liberals
B) Conservatives
C) Socialists
D) Federalists
E) Traditionalists

Question 61

What action can citizens in some states take to force a special vote to remove state elected officials before their terms expire?

A) A referendum
B) A recall
C) An initiative
D) A town meeting
E) A veto

Question 62

Explain what led to the New Federalism.

Question 63

Which of the following statements best describes how federalism enhances democracy?

A) It enables more people to live under laws that are made locally.
B) It forces everyone in a nation to live under all the same rules.
C) It reduces the number of laws that are made locally.
D) It reduces the number of government officials.
E) It centralizes power and authority.

Question 64

Lay out the basic arguments for and against a federal system of government and take a stance on this disagreement.

Question 65

Explain what preemption means, and identify recent trends in its use and the issues that have been addressed.

Question 66

Give examples of powers reserved for state governments and provide the constitutional source of that power.

Question 67

Overall, to what extent does the Constitution lay out the relationship between the federal and state governments?

Question 68

Discuss the line-item veto and its significance.

Question 69

Explain the concept of concurrent powers and provide examples.

Question 70

In your opinion, what is the most significant disadvantage of federalism? Has this disadvantage become more important in modern times? Why or why not?

Question 71

Discuss the conflict between states' rights and powers to control the institution of marriage with their constitutional obligations toward the citizens and legal acts of other states.

Question 72

What were the key weaknesses of the confederal system under the Articles of Confederation?

Question 73

Discuss two of the powers specifically granted to the state governments and two of the powers specifically denied the states by the Constitution. Do the powers granted and denied make sense in modern times?

Question 74

Compare a federal system of government with the unitary and confederal systems by explaining advantages and disadvantages of each. Provide examples to illustrate your arguments.

Question 75

Explain how the Supreme Court's decisions in the 1990s and the first decade of the twenty-first century represented a departure from its traditional approach to resolving issues of state power.

Question 76

What alternatives to federalism did the Framers consider?

Question 77

Discuss how modern immigration policy is a challenge to federalism.

Question 78

What advantages does the federal system of government have over unitary and confederal systems of government? What are the disadvantages?

Question 79

Compare the features of federalism with one other form of government (unitary or confederal) and craft an argument in which you demonstrate why one of these styles of government is superior.

Question 80

In light of recent Supreme Court decisions on issues as diverse as voting rights, same-sex marriage, immigration, and health care, craft an argument in which you discuss whether power is shifting toward or away from the states and assess this move as good or bad for politics.