Deck 7: Emergent General Medical Conditions
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Deck 7: Emergent General Medical Conditions
1
You might expect the patient to be suffering from which of the following conditions, if they present with chest discomfort, dyspnea, and a variety of symptoms associated with viral infections?
A) Commotio cordis
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Viral myocarditis
D) Pneumonia
A) Commotio cordis
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Viral myocarditis
D) Pneumonia
C
2
Numerous changes have occurred over the years to ensure that appropriate ventilation and compressions are made to the chest during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The recommended ratio for breaths and compressions is __________.
A) 2:15
B) 2:30
C) 1:45
D) 2:50
A) 2:15
B) 2:30
C) 1:45
D) 2:50
B
3
___________ is a skin condition that presents as punctuate papules that come on after short periods of exercise.
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
A
4
Use of an electrocardiogram during a preparticipation physical may enable a clinician to identify ventricular hypertrophy and marked symmetrical T-wave inversion.
A) True
B) False
C) True, but an echocardiogram is a better test
D) False, but an echocardiogram is a better test
A) True
B) False
C) True, but an echocardiogram is a better test
D) False, but an echocardiogram is a better test
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5
_________involves preexcitation of the ventricle from the atrium and often results in syncope. Patients with this condition also present with atrial fibrillation 10% to 30% of the time.
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Arthur's syndrome
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Arthur's syndrome
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6
_______________ is a genetic condition that is often associated with a ruptured aortic aneurysm.
A) Marfan's syndrome
B) Kawasaki disease
C) Myocarditis
D) Long QT syndrome
A) Marfan's syndrome
B) Kawasaki disease
C) Myocarditis
D) Long QT syndrome
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7
________is responsible for approximately one-third of all cases of sudden cardiac death in athletes younger than age 35.
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) All of the above
E) B & C
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) All of the above
E) B & C
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8
The use of supplements and drugs are sometimes associated with deaths in athletes. Cocaine use has been associated with _____________.
A) heart arrhythmias
B) aortic dissection
C) cardiomyopathy
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
A) heart arrhythmias
B) aortic dissection
C) cardiomyopathy
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
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9
A period of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be employed prior to utilizing an automated external defibrillator (AED) and chest compressions should be resumed immediately after use of an AED.
A) True
B) False
C) Cannot be determined from the information provided
A) True
B) False
C) Cannot be determined from the information provided
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10
__________, which typically presents as mid- to late-systolic clicking, is associated with sudden death in a minority of athletes.
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Valvular heart disease
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Valvular heart disease
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11
Coronary artery anomalies are ______________.
A) less frequently diagnosed than hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as the cause of death in athletes
B) diagnosed more frequently than ventricular dysplasia
C) assessed best using an angiogram
D) A & B
E) A & C
A) less frequently diagnosed than hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as the cause of death in athletes
B) diagnosed more frequently than ventricular dysplasia
C) assessed best using an angiogram
D) A & B
E) A & C
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12
In athletes older than 35 years of age the cause of sudden cardiac death typically stems from ________.
A) coronary artery disease
B) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) sarcoidosis
A) coronary artery disease
B) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) sarcoidosis
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13
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy _________.
A) is a congenital condition
B) is thought to involve primary arrhythmias and hemodynamic events
C) involves impaired systolic filling
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
A) is a congenital condition
B) is thought to involve primary arrhythmias and hemodynamic events
C) involves impaired systolic filling
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
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14
Sudden cardiac death ___________.
A) is defined as death of an individual occurring within 48 hours
B) is very common in athletes; 100 cases occur per 2500 participants
C) is generally precipitated by activity, many cases occur later in the day
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
A) is defined as death of an individual occurring within 48 hours
B) is very common in athletes; 100 cases occur per 2500 participants
C) is generally precipitated by activity, many cases occur later in the day
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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15
_________is a congenital cardiac condition in which the ventricle of the heart receives electrical stimulation from accessory pathways.
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Arthur's syndrome
A) Long QT syndrome
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) Brugada syndrome
D) Arthur's syndrome
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16
Aortic stenosis presents with a harsh systolic murmur that increases upon squatting. Patients with a mild case of this condition may participate in all competitive sports.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Only the first statement is true.
C) Only the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Only the first statement is true.
C) Only the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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17
Which of the following have been identified as common causes of the sudden death of athletes?
A) Pulmonary problems
B) Hyperthermia
C) Drug abuse
D) Blunt chest trauma
E) All of the above
A) Pulmonary problems
B) Hyperthermia
C) Drug abuse
D) Blunt chest trauma
E) All of the above
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18
Brugada syndrome _____________.
A) has a high risk for sudden death in young healthy adults
B) is a genetic disease
C) results in ventricular fibrillation
D) requires placement of an intracardiac defibrillator for treatment
E) All of the above
A) has a high risk for sudden death in young healthy adults
B) is a genetic disease
C) results in ventricular fibrillation
D) requires placement of an intracardiac defibrillator for treatment
E) All of the above
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19
Long QT syndrome ___________.
A) can be an acquired condition
B) is a genetic or inherited condition
C) involves prolongation of cardiac depolarization
D) A & B
E) A & C
A) can be an acquired condition
B) is a genetic or inherited condition
C) involves prolongation of cardiac depolarization
D) A & B
E) A & C
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20
Primary arrhythmias, hemodynamic events such as decreased stroke volume, decreased diastolic filling, and impaired ventricular filling are often associated with ___________.
A) pulmonary embolisms
B) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) ventricular dysplasia
D) coronary artery abnormalities
A) pulmonary embolisms
B) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) ventricular dysplasia
D) coronary artery abnormalities
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21
Which of the following are events associated with asthma?
1) Release of chemical mediators
2) Swelling of airway walls
3) Increased microvascular permeability
4) Mucosal thickening
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1 & 3
1) Release of chemical mediators
2) Swelling of airway walls
3) Increased microvascular permeability
4) Mucosal thickening
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1 & 3
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22
Athletes suffering from type 2 diabetes will present with _______.
A) electrolyte imbalances
B) hyperglycemia
C) dehydration
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
A) electrolyte imbalances
B) hyperglycemia
C) dehydration
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
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23
____________ involves fatigue, generalized warmth, pruritus, and erythema, progressing further to include urticarial eruption. This condition may also result in periods of lost consciousness, choking, stridor, and gastrointestinal (GI) colic with nausea and vomiting.
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
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24
Asthma severity is determined via _________.
A) clinical examination
B) pulmonary function
C) asthma symptoms
D) need for rescue medication
E) All of the above
A) clinical examination
B) pulmonary function
C) asthma symptoms
D) need for rescue medication
E) All of the above
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25
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a medical emergency. It comes about as free fatty acids are released into the circulation and the liver takes them up, converts them to ketones, and releases them back into the circulation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) Only the first statement is true.
D) Only the second statement is true.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) Only the first statement is true.
D) Only the second statement is true.
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26
One of your athletes just received some medication to help manage an asthma attack. The athlete begins to complain of blurry vision, depression, confusion, nausea, and skin redness. Which of the following medications did she receive?
A) Beta-2 agonists
B) Beta-2 antagonists
C) Antihistamines
D) Corticosteroids
A) Beta-2 agonists
B) Beta-2 antagonists
C) Antihistamines
D) Corticosteroids
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27
Which of the following are not signs and symptoms of mononucleosis?
A) Sore throat
B) Fever
C) Malaise
D) Increased red blood cell count
A) Sore throat
B) Fever
C) Malaise
D) Increased red blood cell count
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28
The Epstein-Barr virus results in the development of _________.
A) mononucleosis
B) lymphadenopathy
C) lymphocytosis
D) A & C
E) A& B
A) mononucleosis
B) lymphadenopathy
C) lymphocytosis
D) A & C
E) A& B
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29
Which of the following are not signs and symptoms that a person's asthma is flaring up?
A) Requiring extra doses of quick-relief rescue inhaler
B) Pulsus paranormal
C) Use of accessory muscles for inspiration
D) Diaphoresis
A) Requiring extra doses of quick-relief rescue inhaler
B) Pulsus paranormal
C) Use of accessory muscles for inspiration
D) Diaphoresis
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30
Which of the following are common asthma triggers?
A) Allergen exposure
B) Air pollutants
C) Drugs
D) Weather changes
E) All of the above
A) Allergen exposure
B) Air pollutants
C) Drugs
D) Weather changes
E) All of the above
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31
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of asthma?
A) Shortness of breath and wheezing
B) Chest tightness
C) Night and morning cough
D) Fast breathing that worsens with exercise or changes in the weather
A) Shortness of breath and wheezing
B) Chest tightness
C) Night and morning cough
D) Fast breathing that worsens with exercise or changes in the weather
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32
Bronchorestriction is the result of _________.
A) inflammatory cell mediator release
B) local reflex stimulation
C) central neural reflex stimulation
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
A) inflammatory cell mediator release
B) local reflex stimulation
C) central neural reflex stimulation
D) A & B
E) A, B, & C
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33
In order to guide initial management, which of the following should be done?
A) Provide a rescue inhaler.
B) Perform peak expiratory flow measurement.
C) Perform a chest x-ray.
A) Provide a rescue inhaler.
B) Perform peak expiratory flow measurement.
C) Perform a chest x-ray.
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34
Which of the following would be consistent with prehypertension?
A) Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139 mm Hg
B) Systolic blood pressure of 140 to 159 mm Hg
C) Systolic blood pressure greater than 160 mm Hg
D) None of the above
A) Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139 mm Hg
B) Systolic blood pressure of 140 to 159 mm Hg
C) Systolic blood pressure greater than 160 mm Hg
D) None of the above
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35
The side effects of beta-2 agonists include _________.
A) tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia
B) skeletal muscle generators
C) hypokalemia
D) increase in blood-free fatty acids
E) All of the above
A) tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia
B) skeletal muscle generators
C) hypokalemia
D) increase in blood-free fatty acids
E) All of the above
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36
Which of the following is not a treatment for exercise-induced anaphylaxis?
A) Subcutaneous epinephrine
B) Intravenous fluid
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Antihistamines
E) Airway management
A) Subcutaneous epinephrine
B) Intravenous fluid
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Antihistamines
E) Airway management
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37
Insulin deficiency results in ___________.
A) hyperglycemic conditions within the body
B) dehydration
C) hyerhydration
D) A & B
E) A & C
A) hyperglycemic conditions within the body
B) dehydration
C) hyerhydration
D) A & B
E) A & C
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38
__________ is characterized by punctuated urticaria and exercise-induced vascular collapse.
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Exercise-induced anaphylaxis
C) Variant type exercise-induced anaphylaxis
D) None of the above
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39
___________ is a metabolic disorder that results from insulin secretion, action, or both.
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Insulin shock
C) Insulin withdrawal
D) All of the above
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Insulin shock
C) Insulin withdrawal
D) All of the above
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40
Albuterol, metaproterenol, and terbutaline are all types of __________.
A) beta-2 agonists
B) beta-2 antagonists
C) antihistamines
D) anticholergenics
A) beta-2 agonists
B) beta-2 antagonists
C) antihistamines
D) anticholergenics
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41
If hypertension goes untreated, it can result in target organ dysfunction. Which of the following organs are most affected by hypertension?
A) Central nervous system
B) Cardiovascular system
C) Renal system
D) All of the above
A) Central nervous system
B) Cardiovascular system
C) Renal system
D) All of the above
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42
Which of the following would be consistent with stage I hypertension?
A) Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139 mm Hg
B) Systolic blood pressure of 140 to 159 mm Hg
C) Systolic blood pressure greater than 160 mm Hg
D) Diastolic blood pressure of 80 to 89 mm Hg
E) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg
A) Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139 mm Hg
B) Systolic blood pressure of 140 to 159 mm Hg
C) Systolic blood pressure greater than 160 mm Hg
D) Diastolic blood pressure of 80 to 89 mm Hg
E) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg
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