Deck 22: Lymphatic System and Immunity

Question 1

The thoracic duct drains lymph into the

A) left subclavian vein.
B) right subclavian vein.
C) right internal jugular vein.
D) left brachiocephalic vein.
E) left subclavian artery.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by

A) adding lymph to GI tract secretions.
B) returning interstitial fluid to the plasma.
C) transporting lymph from tissues to the liver.
D) carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted.
E) actively absorbing fluid from the blood.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that

A) the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues.
B) the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow.
C) lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid.
D) lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries.
E) lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following organs does NOT contain lymphatic tissue?

A) liver
B) spleen
C) lingual tonsils
D) thymus
E) pharyngeal tonsils.

Question 5

What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph?

A) over-lapping endothelial cells
B) valves
C) no basement membrane
D) thin walls

Question 6

The lymphatic system is involved in

A) lipid absorption from the digestive tract.
B) transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver.
C) maintenance of pH in the tissues.
D) production of erythrocytes.
E) protein metabolism.

Question 7

Lymph movement is assisted by

A) contraction of skeletal muscle.
B) contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel.
C) pressure changes in the thorax during respiration.
D) compression of lymphatic vessels.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 8

A woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. Which of the following might occur?

A) Cisterna chyli flow increases.
B) The thoracic duct would be severed.
C) Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm.
D) Lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm.
E) Lymph drainage would be affected in both legs.

Question 9

Structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to

A) veins.
B) arteries.
C) arterioles.
D) capillaries.
E) venules.

Question 10

Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the

A) lymph nodes.
B) spleen and tonsils.
C) appendix and tonsils.
D) small intestine and appendix.

Question 11

What is the purpose of lacteals?

A) Drain blood from the spleen.
B) Absorb fluid from capillary beds.
C) Absorb lipids from the digestive tract.
D) Absorb solutes from interstitial spaces.

Question 12

Lymph capillaries are found in the

A) epidermis.
B) cornea.
C) bone marrow.
D) central nervous system.
E) dermis.

Question 13

Nonencapsulated lymphatic tissue called MALT includes all of the following except:

A) tonsils.
B) Peyer patches.
C) lymph nodes.
D) diffuse lymphatic tissue.

Question 14

Lacteals are

A) a type of lymphocyte.
B) a nonspecific defense.
C) lymphatic vessels in the lining of the small intestine.
D) the sinuses inside a lymph node.
E) germinal centers.

Question 15

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the

A) abdomen.
B) upper part of the body.
C) right arm, right chest, and right side of head.
D) right side of the body.
E) left arm, left chest, and left side of head.

Question 16

How do lymphatic capillaries differ form blood capillaries?

A) Lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane.
B) Simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments.
C) Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries.
D) Lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces.
E) All of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries.

Question 17

Lymph nodules are

A) small, bean-shaped structures.
B) the site of erythrocyte production.
C) located in the loose connective tissue of the digestive system.
D) composed of an outer cortex and inner medulla.
E) connected together in a series.

Question 18

Lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibers that functions to

A) produce lymphocytes.
B) produce capsules around lymph nodes.
C) attack microorganisms.
D) line the walls of lymphatic vessels.
E) trap microorganisms.

Question 19

Lymph containing a high lipid content is called

A) chyle.
B) chyme.
C) lacteal.
D) interstitial fluid.

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances.
B) Aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells.
C) Maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood.
D) Absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract.

Question 21

What is the function of thymosin?

A) destroys damaged red blood cells
B) destroys damaged white blood cells
C) activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes
D) maturation of T-cells

Question 22

Tonsils

A) increase in size in adults.
B) are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities.
C) provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities.
D) contain red pulp and white pulp.
E) are not functional in children.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

A) It has memory.
B) You are born with it.
C) It has specificity.
D) Acquired throughout your lifetime.

Question 24

Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes.

A) trabecular cells
B) germinal cells
C) macrophages.
D) lymphocytes
E) plasma cells

Question 25

Complement proteins

A) can form holes in the plasma membrane of target cells.
B) are on the surface of macrophages.
C) are hormones found in the blood.
D) may cause the release of interferon.
E) do not attract neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, or eosinophils.

Question 26

Germinal centers are the sites of

A) increased blood flow to the lymph nodes.
B) fluid production.
C) increased flow of lymph from infected tissues.
D) entrance of lymph into lymph nodes.
E) proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

Question 27

Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called

A) cortex.
B) capsule.
C) reticulum.
D) trabeculum.
E) basement membrane.

Question 28

The palatine tonsils

A) interfere with breathing when enlarged.
B) are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx.
C) are located superior to the palate.
D) are really lymph nodes in disguise.
E) are located in the nasopharynx.

Question 29

Adenoids are enlarged

A) lingual tonsils.
B) pharyngeal tonsils.
C) palatine tonsils.
D) cervical lymph nodes.
E) axillary lymph nodes.

Question 30

Which of the following statements accurately describes the thymus gland?

A) The thymus gland lacks a capsule.
B) The thymus gland contains many reticular fibers.
C) The thymus gland decreases in size after age 60.
D) Lymphocytes are found only in the medulla of the thymus gland.
E) The thymus increases in size with aging.

Question 31

Lymph exits a lymph node via the

A) efferent lymphatic vessels.
B) afferent lymphatic vessels.
C) cortical sinuses.
D) trabeculae.
E) lymphatic duct.

Question 32

Which of the following would be classified as an innate physical barrier?

A) activation of complement
B) phagocytosis of invading organisms
C) washing action of tears and saliva
D) inflammation
E) release of histamine

Question 33

Which of the following statements concerning the spleen is true?

A) Splenic arteries enter the organ at the periarterial sheath.
B) The spleen can act as a blood reservoir.
C) The white pulp is associated with the venous supply.
D) The red pulp has trabeculae.
E) Humans can not survive without a spleen.

Question 34

The only structures that filter lymph is/are the

A) tonsils.
B) spleen.
C) lymph nodes.
D) thymus.

Question 35

Which of the following characteristics is/are most consistent with adaptive immunity?

A) constant response to each exposure
B) specificity
C) memory
D) increased response to second and subsequent exposures
E) specificity, memory and increased response to second and subsequent exposures

Question 36

When innate immunity is activated,

A) each exposure is very specific.
B) previous exposures are remembered.
C) each exposure produces the same response.
D) each exposure increases the strength of the immune response.
E) the second exposure does not produce a response.

Question 37

The white pulp of the spleen

A) contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response.
B) filters lymph as it flows through the spleen.
C) destroys defective red blood cells.
D) stimulates immune responses, filter lymph, and destroys defective red blood cells.

Question 38

Bean-shaped lymphatic organs found along lymphatic vessels are called

A) lymph nodes.
B) medullary cords.
C) cisterna chyli.
D) trabeculae.
E) lymph nodules.

Question 39

The spleen

A) filters damaged red blood cells from the blood.
B) changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes.
C) is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death.
D) produces several different hormones with unknown function.
E) has additional digestive functions.

Question 40

Which of the following is true of adaptive immunity?

A) It is present at birth.
B) Previous encounters with the foreign substance does not change the response.
C) The second response is faster and stronger than the first response.
D) Responses are general, not specific.

Question 41

A surface chemical that prevents microbial growth is

A) histamine.
B) leukotriene.
C) sebum.
D) kinin.
E) interferon.

Question 42

The redness and heat seen in an inflamed area are the result of

A) vasoconstriction.
B) increased blood flow to the area.
C) phagocyte mobilization.
D) production of interferon.
E) a reddish substance released by erythrocytes.

Question 43

In a patient experiencing a parasitic worm infection, which of the following immune cells will greatly increase in number?

A) mast cells
B) eosinophils
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils
E) basophils

Question 44

Which of the following statements concerning neutrophils and macrophages is false?

A) They both exhibit chemotaxis.
B) They both move by amoeboid motion.
C) Both are capable of phagocytosis.
D) Both release histamine when activated.
E) Both can squeeze between cells.

Question 45

The key signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT

A) jaundice.
B) pain.
C) swelling.
D) redness.
E) heat.

Question 46

Histamine and leukotrienes are released from

A) basophils and mast cells.
B) eosinophils and basophils.
C) neutrophils and lymphocytes.
D) macrophages and microphages.
E) phagocytes.

Question 47

Interferon production is stimulated by

A) a viral infection.
B) the complement cascade.
C) antigen-presenting cells.
D) degranulation of basophils.
E) inflammation.

Question 48

Interferon

A) directly attacks viruses.
B) protects cells that have been invaded by viruses.
C) increases vascular permeability.
D) is not produced by most cells.
E) is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection.

Question 49

Which of the following most accurately describes how foreign substances can activate complement?

A) Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway.
B) Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.
C) Foreign proteins bind to C1 and activate it.
D) Foreign proteins are phagocytized by macrophages and directly activate complement.
E) Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.

Question 50

Macrophages

A) are derived from basophils.
B) reduce the inflammatory response.
C) are responsible for most phagocytic activity in the late stages of an infection.
D) produce cytokines that aid in the destruction of antigens.
E) are the first at the site of infection.

Question 51

Natural Killer (NK) cells

A) a type of macrophage.
B) are a type of plasma cell.
C) secrete enzymes that kill tumor or virus-infected cells.
D) are derived from B cells.
E) promote inflammation.

Question 52

The movement of leukocytes to the source of certain chemicals is called

A) chemotaxis.
B) opsonization.
C) chemoreception.
D) phagocytosis.
E) hemolysis.

Question 53

The two major types of phagocytic cells are

A) neutrophils and monocytes.
B) neutrophils and macrophages.
C) monocytes and macrophages.
D) lymphocytes and monocytes.
E) eosinophils and T cells.

Question 54

The inflammatory response

A) prevents the spread of an infection.
B) stimulates erythrocytes to leave the blood.
C) delays healing of damaged tissues.
D) depresses immunity.
E) is harmful and should be immediately reversed.

Question 55

Lysozyme is

A) an enzyme found in body fluids that destroys certain bacteria.
B) a type of antibody that attracts a phagocyte.
C) a cytokine produced by T cells.
D) an antigen.
E) a bacteria.

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action?

A) produces cytokines
B) opsonization
C) attracts other immune cells to the site of infection
D) forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis

Question 57

Which of the following substances causes increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis, and vasodilation?

A) histamine
B) protaglandins
C) leukotrienes
D) complement
E) cytokines

Question 58

Which of the following is usually the first cell type to leave the blood and enter infected tissues?

A) eosinophil
B) lymphocyte
C) monocyte
D) natural killer cell
E) neutrophil

Question 59

A protein that helps to protect the body against viral infections is

A) complement.
B) interferon.
C) lysozyme.
D) histamine.
E) kinin.

Question 60

During the inflammatory response,

A) vasoconstriction occurs.
B) chemical mediators are released.
C) vascular permeability is decreased.
D) neutrophil production is depressed.
E) blood flow is reduced.

Question 61

Lymphocyte activation can occur in several ways. However, in all cases

A) lymphocytes must recognize an antigen.
B) helper T cells are activated first and they then stimulate other cells.
C) antigen-presenting cells process the antigen and present it to the lymphocytes.
D) cytokines released by the antigen stimulate the lymphocyte response.
E) antigens must be able to recognize the lymphocytes.

Question 62

Positive selection of lymphocytes refers to the

A) processing of an antigen by a macrophage.
B) proliferation of natural killer cells.
C) production of antigen-specific antibodies.
D) survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are capable of an immune response.
E) replication of memory cells.

Question 63

The thymus is where ____ mature and become functional immune cells.

A) pre-T cells
B) pre-B cells
C) macrophages
D) null cells
E) C cells.

Question 64

Which of the following is a subpopulation of T cells?

A) cytotoxic
B) antigenic
C) cytokinetic
D) basophilic
E) antitoxic

Question 65

In systemic inflammation, pyrogens

A) decrease phagocytosis.
B) decrease vasodilation.
C) increase neutrophil production.
D) stimulate fever production.
E) are chemotaxic factors.

Question 66

The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class molecules

A) are only found on B cells.
B) are found in the nucleus of cells.
C) allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells.
D) are lipoproteins on cell surfaces.
E) do not attach to plasma membranes.

Question 67

What areas of an antigen are recognized by lymphocytes so that they can respond?

A) major histocompatibility complexes
B) antigenic determinants
C) T-cell receptors
D) epitopes
E) Both antigenic determinants and epitopes are correct.

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphatic organ?

A) spleen
B) lymph node
C) lymphatic nodule
D) thymus gland

Question 69

The effects of cell-mediated immunity are the result of activities of

A) B cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) macrophages.
D) dendritic cells.
E) helper T cells.

Question 70

Different T-cell receptors can respond to different antigens because of different

A) variable regions in the structure of the receptors.
B) epitopes in the receptor's structure.
C) selection processes.
D) complement binding sites in the receptors.
E) antigenic determinants.

Question 71

A small molecule that can cause an allergic reaction is a/an

A) T cell.
B) B cell.
C) antibody.
D) hapten.

Question 72

Transplanted tissues and organs that contain _________ _________ are rejected by the body.

A) self-antigens
B) foreign antigens
C) foreign antibodies
D) self-antibodies
E) plasma proteins

Question 73

The MHC class I antigen complex displays a foreign antigen on the cell surface. This prompts the immune system to destroy

A) B cell clones.
B) extracellular antigens.
C) the displaying cell.
D) mature red blood cells.
E) the virus inside the cell, but not the cell.

Question 74

____ are part of cell-mediated immunity while ____ are part of antibody-mediated immunity.

A) B cells, NK cells
B) Antibodies, antigens
C) T cells, B cells
D) Macrophages, antibodies
E) Neutrophils, monocytes

Question 75

Primary lymphatic organs include the

A) tonsils and spleen.
B) thymus and lymph nodes.
C) red bone marrow and thymus.
D) red bone marrow and lymph nodes.

Question 76

______ determines which B-cell is cloned in an antibody-mediated response.

A) The antibody
B) The antigen
C) A macrophage
D) Complement
E) A neutrophil

Question 77

The process of eliminating those lymphocytes that react or respond against self-antigens is called

A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) negative selection.
D) activation of complement.
E) natural selection.

Question 78

Circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include

A) increased viscosity of the blood.
B) decreased vascular permeability.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) decreased blood flow to the area.
E) vasoconstriction.

Question 79

MHC class II molecules are found on

A) neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages.
B) dendritic cells, B cells, and helper T cells.
C) monocytes, helper T cells, and neutrophils.
D) B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E) B cells, C cells and D cells.

Question 80

Adaptive immunity is stimulated by

A) antigens.
B) histamines.
C) antibodies.
D) complement.
E) plasma proteins.