Deck 3: Federalism

Question 1

A central premise in Marshall's analysis of federalism was that the government of the United States was established by

A) the convention.
B) the states.
C) the people.
D) the Supreme Court.
E) both B and D.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

During the battle over slavery, the case for nullification was forcefully presented by

A) William Jennings Randolph.
B) Robert E. Lee.
C) William Graham Sumner.
D) John C. Calhoun.
E) JEB Stuart.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

In Federalist No. 45, Madison describes the powers of state governments as

A) broad but limited.
B) numerous and indefinite.
C) narrow but critical.
D) limited and subject to review.
E) without substance.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the federal system adopted at the Constitutional Convention is most accurate?

A) It had been tried without success in other countries.
B) It was adopted as an alternative to a confederate system, in which local governments are granted a specially protected existence.
C) It granted supreme authority to neither national nor state government.
D) It specifically reserved powers not delegated to the United States by the U.S. Constitution to the states.
E) It guaranteed the dominance of the states for several hundred years.

Question 5

Applying the principles of Thomas Jefferson to current political issues would probably dispose one to

A) favor the decentralization of government power.
B) oppose the decentralization of government power.
C) favor seven-year terms for presidents.
D) oppose seven-year terms for presidents.
E) favor a more powerful bureaucracy.

Question 6

Most states responded to the Kelo decision by passing laws that

A) redefined public purpose.
B) set up procedures for voting.
C) considerably expanded the scope of the government's power.
D) restricted the power of local governments.
E) limited the Supreme Court's ruling to public housing.

Question 7

The concept of separate, sovereign national and state governments is known as

A) nationalism.
B) democracy.
C) confederation.
D) federalism.
E) unicameralism.

Question 8

Which statement best summarizes Madison's view of federalism?

A) He was a consistent supporter of the notion of a supreme national government.
B) He was a consistent supporter of the notion of the supremacy of state governments.
C) He was first an ardent supporter of national supremacy, then of states' rights.
D) He was first an ardent supporter of states' rights, then of national supremacy.
E) He assumed the national government would be supreme except in times of war.

Question 9

The text suggests federalism, or federal-state relations, looms behind

A) civil rights.
B) civil liberties.
C) the sale and purchasing of liquor.
D) the speed limit of certain highways.
E) All of the above.

Question 10

The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a protracted debate on the subject of

A) commerce.
B) banking.
C) manufacturing.
D) welfare.
E) licensing of commercial fishermen.

Question 11

The Founders did not include in the U.S. Constitution an explicit statement of state powers but added it later in

A) the Second Amendment.
B) the Seventh Amendment.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) None of the above.

Question 12

Madison's description of federalism in Federalist No. 46 suggests there should be little concern over conflicts between the federal and state governments because

A) the federal government would clearly be the winner in such conflicts.
B) the state government would clearly be the winner in such conflicts.
C) such conflicts would occur only on minor issues of importance.
D) they are different agents with different powers.
E) the judicial branch would settle such disputes.

Question 13

The Civil War settled one part of the issue of national supremacy versus states' rights, namely, that

A) state governments are supreme over the national government.
B) the national government derives its sovereignty from the states.
C) the national government derives its sovereignty from the people.
D) the national government derives its sovereignty from both the people and the states.
E) state governments derive their power from each other.

Question 14

The early chief justice whose decisions generally gave the broadest possible sweep to federal powers was

A) Roger Taney.
B) Frederick Vinson.
C) John Marshall.
D) Alexander Hamilton.
E) John Harlan.

Question 15

Just what sort of commerce Congress could regulate between the states was not spelled out in the U.S. Constitution because

A) no consensus existed.
B) of an oversight.
C) commerce was a new phenomenon.
D) slavery was involved.
E) New York delegates refused to allow discussion on the matter.

Question 16

A statement specific to state powers was not part of the original U.S. Constitution because

A) no such consensus existed at the Constitutional Convention.
B) it was deleted under the Virginia Plan.
C) New York delegates refused to allow discussion on the matter.
D) the U.S. Constitution would not have been ratified.
E) it was assumed to be obvious.

Question 17

In Kelo v. City of New London, the Supreme Court held that the government can seize property

A) for public use.
B) if revenues are short.
C) to promote economic development in distressed communities.
D) if it has the consent of the community.
E) both A and C

Question 18

The doctrine of nullification refers to

A) the power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution.
B) the claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S. Constitution.
C) the power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution.
D) the authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections.
E) the power of the federal government to invalidate state laws on matters of commerce.

Question 19

For the Founders, federalism was a device to

A) protect liberty.
B) provide efficient local administration.
C) encourage citizen participation.
D) guarantee equality.
E) protect against foreign invasion.

Question 20

An important outcome of Marshall's ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to

A) place limits on the constitutional powers granted to Congress by refusing McCulloch's appeal.
B) give greater power to the states in taxing agents of the federal government, including banks.
C) protect newspaper editors who publish stories critical of the federal government.
D) restrict the power of the Court in cases involving conflicts between states and the federal government.
E) confirm the supremacy of the federal government in the exercise of the constitutional powers granted to Congress.

Question 21

Initially, it was supposed that

A) Congress could regulate interstate commerce.
B) Congress could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce.
C) the state governments could regulate interstate commerce.
D) the state governments could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce.
E) there was no distinction between interstate and intrastate commerce.

Question 22

The interstate commerce that the federal government can regulate is now interpreted to include

A) almost any kind of economic activity.
B) only the movement of goods between states.
C) almost any commerce in goods, but not labor transactions.
D) commerce between states and a handful of transactions within states.
E) shipping and handling, but not production.

Question 23

Under their police powers, states can enact and enforce all of the following except

A) criminal codes.
B) laws requiring children to attend school.
C) restrictions on the availability of pornographic materials.
D) standards for DUI convictions.
E) the regulation of interstate commerce.

Question 24

In the United States, programs such as the interstate highway system and services to the unemployed are most accurately considered

A) state functions that operate without any involvement on the part of the federal government.
B) federal functions, although state governments pay some of the costs.
C) state functions that are designated under the Tenth Amendment.
D) federal functions that operate without any involvement on the part of state governments.
E) state functions, although the federal government seeks to regulate them.

Question 25

In United States v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled that Congress overstepped its power to regulate commerce by prohibiting ________ in a school zone.

A) guns
B) adult bookstores
C) cigarette sales
D) alcohol sales
E) dog races

Question 26

According to the text, the Supreme Court has generally excluded ________ from many of the restrictions addressed in commerce clause cases.

A) baseball players
B) lawyers
C) janitors
D) window washers
E) farmers

Question 27

One of the reasons that our local governments are independent of the national government is

A) Article III of the U.S. Constitution.
B) the power of free elections.
C) the commitment of Americans to the ideal of local government.
D) the fact that the local tax structure requires local administration.
E) the Fourteenth Amendment.

Question 28

Ukraine, formerly one of the Soviet republics, had its own local unit of government, yet the Soviet Union was not considered a federal system. This is because in the former Soviet Union,

A) local governments were not independent of the central government.
B) local government officials were not elected democratically.
C) the central government did not have a constitution.
D) central government officials were appointed by local governments.
E) local governments administered their own laws and ordinances.

Question 29

Perhaps the most obvious effect of federalism in the United States has been to

A) centralize the government.
B) prevent states from blocking national interests.
C) increase conflict among elites.
D) raise the cost of organized political activity.
E) mobilize political activity.

Question 30

William H. Riker's somewhat startling conclusion is that the main effect of federalism since the Civil War has been

A) poverty.
B) racism.
C) corruption.
D) fraud.
E) sexism.

Question 31

The text suggests that the Supreme Court has given "new life" to the ________ Amendment.

A) Fourth
B) Sixth
C) Seventh
D) Eleventh
E) Eighteenth

Question 32

The Violence Against Women Act of 1994 was conspicuous because it allowed women who were the victims of gender-based violence to

A) sue the families of their attackers.
B) collect fees from businesses.
C) file class-action suits on behalf of high school students.
D) sue in federal court.
E) collect up to $60 million in punitive damages.

Question 33

Which of the following countries does not have a federal system of government?

A) The United States
B) Great Britain
C) Canada
D) Germany
E) Australia

Question 34

At one point, the Supreme Court attempted to define the end point of transportation and interstate commerce by focusing on

A) original packaging.
B) miles of travel.
C) number of state boundaries that were crossed.
D) total costs of production as opposed to transportation.
E) storage in warehouses.

Question 35

An interest group with a strong following in only one region of the country would have the best chance to achieve its goals under which type of system?

A) Democratic
B) Republican
C) Federal
D) Unitary
E) Provincial

Question 36

Initially, the states were supposed to have the power to regulate commerce related to

A) prostitution.
B) lotteries.
C) liquor.
D) farming.
E) harmful food and drugs.

Question 37

The text says that it would be a mistake to conclude that the doctrine of dual federalism is

A) entirely dead.
B) alive and well.
C) much changed.
D) no longer a threat.
E) an empirical reality.

Question 38

Which of the following allows national governments the right to alter or even abolish local government?

A) A constitutional government
B) Federalism
C) A unitary system
D) Socialism
E) A confederation

Question 39

In United States v. Morrison, the Supreme Court ruled that violence against women

A) was not an appropriate focus of punitive damages.
B) did not substantially affect interstate commerce.
C) could not be made the responsibility of distant relatives.
D) was nonjusticiable.
E) could not be regulated by law.

Question 40

In ruling that the government cannot require local police to conduct background checks on all gun purchases, the Court held that to do so would be a violation of the __________ Amendment.

A) Fifth
B) Sixth
C) Tenth
D) Fourteenth
E) None of the above.

Question 41

By 2006, federal aid accounted for about _______ percent of state general revenue.

A) 2
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 30

Question 42

Until the 1960s, most federal grants-in-aid were

A) conceived by or in cooperation with the states.
B) designed to serve essentially sate purposes.
C) were supported by large blocs of voters or organized interests.
D) designed to serve essentially national purposes.
E) A, B, and C.

Question 43

Federalism in the United States means that when Washington wants to send money to one state or congressional district it must

A) justify the decision in writing.
B) send money to many states and districts.
C) send money in as direct a manner as possible.
D) act swiftly, without regard to other states and districts.
E) remove controversy from the process by press releases.

Question 44

The first form of grant-in-aid to the states made by the federal government to the state governments was that of

A) cash grants-in-aid.
B) block grants.
C) revenue sharing.
D) categorical grants.
E) land grants.

Question 45

The term intergovernmental lobby is used in the text to refer to lobbying activities by

A) state and local officials at the national government.
B) one branch of the national government at another branch.
C) foreign governments in Washington, D.C.
D) federal agencies at statehouses and city halls.
E) governmental units with ties to interest groups.

Question 46

The states play a key role in

A) social welfare.
B) public education.
C) health and hospitals.
D) managing water supplies.
E) All of the above.

Question 47

An example of an intergovernmental lobby would be a lobby comprising

A) local police chiefs.
B) local gas station owners.
C) gun enthusiasts.
D) oil company executives.
E) a society of card players.

Question 48

Which is a procedure that enables voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature?

A) Initiative
B) Referendum
C) Recall
D) Logrolling
E) Rollback

Question 49

Which of the following was not one of the reasons federal grants were attractive to state officials?

A) Federal government budget surpluses
B) Passage of the Fifteenth Amendment
C) The potency of the federal income tax
D) The appearance of "free money" for the states
E) The ability of the federal government to print money

Question 50

A block grant is essentially a

A) grant that benefits a single, local unit (or block).
B) group of categorical or project grants.
C) reverse grant-in-aid, by which money flows from states back to the federal government.
D) project grant with tighter restrictions.
E) a project grant with less federal support.

Question 51

One reason that block grants have proved unsuccessful as a means of distributing federal money to local governments is that they

A) lack strong local political support.
B) are too vulnerable to political lobbying.
C) require annual congressional approval.
D) encourage rivalry among states competing for federal money.
E) rarely build consensus among leaders in Washington.

Question 52

According to the text, block grants have enjoyed only marginal success, in part because

A) the federal government steadily increased the number of strings attached to such grants.
B) money from categorical grants shrank so low as to make these other grants essential.
C) these grants were based on local priorities rather than on the needs of the nation as a whole.
D) these grants discouraged federal control over how the money was to be used.
E) these grants were not attractive to members of Congress.

Question 53

The cost of political participation to the average U.S. citizen is less than that to the average French citizen because in the United States,

A) more small, political constituencies are found than in France.
B) the media give greater coverage to political protest than in France.
C) fewer citizens become involved in political causes than in France.
D) political participation is both protected and encouraged by the U.S. Constitution.
E) political debates are given more media attention in the United States.

Question 54

According to the text, the grant-in-aid system grew rapidly because it helped state and local officials resolve what dilemma?

A) How to get federal money into state hands without violating the U.S. Constitution
B) How to limit federal taxation power without reducing aid to states
C) How to increase federal taxation power without violating the U.S. Constitution
D) How to shift financial control of state programs to the federal government without violating states' rights
E) How to ring critical state functions gradually under federal control

Question 55

During the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on

A) the demands of the individual states.
B) what state officials perceived to be important state needs.
C) the power of organized interest groups.
D) what federal officials perceived to be national needs.
E) the demands of coalitions of states.

Question 56

Categorical grants were generally favored by

A) federal officials.
B) liberal interest groups.
C) organized labor.
D) the federal bureaucracy.
E) All of the above.

Question 57

This procedure, which is in effect in over 20 states, permits voters to remove an elected official from office.

A) Initiative
B) Referendum
C) Recall
D) Logrolling
E) Rollback

Question 58

Federal officials' perceptions of national needs came to dominate the allocation of federal grants during the

A) Reagan administration.
B) Great Depression.
C) World War II era.
D) post-Civil War era.
E) 1960s.

Question 59

Block grants began in the mid-

A) 1920s.
B) 1940s.
C) 1960s.
D) 1980s.
E) 1990s.

Question 60

Which statement regarding states is incorrect?

A) Their existence is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
B) No state can be divided without its consent.
C) Each state must have two representatives in the Senate.
D) Each state is assured of a republican form of government.
E) Powers not granted to Congress are reserved to the states.

Question 61

The devolution initiatives of the Republicans were not new, but acquired a new vitality because the effort was led by

A) the president.
B) Congress.
C) the federal bureaucracy.
D) state governors.
E) state legislatures.

Question 62

According to the text, __________ waivers have generally been easy for state and local governments to get.

A) environmental protection
B) health policy
C) education
D) human services
E) transportation

Question 63

The difference between a mandate and a condition of aid is that

A) with a mandate the federal government tells a state government what it must do if it wants grant money.
B) a mandate applies to a block grant; a condition of aid applies to a categorical grant.
C) a mandate applies to a categorical grant; a condition of aid applies to a block grant.
D) with a mandate the federal government allows the state to do as it pleases if its actions are in accordance with federal law.
E) with a mandate it makes no difference who is paying the costs of a program.

Question 64

One clear impact of devolution is

A) a reduction in welfare rolls.
B) fewer governmental rules and regulations.
C) greater regard for the benefits of categorical grants.
D) a reduction in federal spending.
E) a reduction in state spending.

Question 65

A 2006 study found that the highest number of unfunded mandates concerned

A) intrastate commerce.
B) the Internet.
C) civil rights.
D) the environment.
E) education policy.

Question 66

Most federal mandates concern

A) intrastate commerce.
B) the Internet.
C) civil rights.
D) the environment.
E) both C and D.

Question 67

Why do members of Congress who represent the interests of localities to the federal government pass laws that create so many problems for the mayors and governors of these localities?

A) Because the structure of Congress is such that the interests of localities are rarely taken into account
B) Because the power of political parties to influence the votes of party members is so great
C) Because mayors and governors frequently resent federal interference in local affairs
D) Because most members of Congress regard their role as that of representing the national government to localities
E) Because members of Congress often represent different constituencies from the same localities

Question 68

Federal courts have fueled the growth of mandates through litigation involving

A) prison construction.
B) school desegregation.
C) police brutality.
D) the hiring of firefighters.
E) All of the above.

Question 69

What types of federal funds are most likely to be critical for an agency that depends on the federal government for its existence?

A) Categorical grants
B) Block grants
C) Fund grants
D) Revenue-sharing programs
E) Project enhancement grants

Question 70

According to the text, ___________ waivers are "almost impossible to acquire."

A) environmental protection
B) health policy
C) education
D) human services
E) transportation

Question 71

The Republican effort to pass on to the states many federal functions is known as

A) third-order devolution.
B) marble-cake federalism.
C) devolution.
D) neo-institutionalism.
E) fragmented federalism.

Question 72

Categorical grants are supervised by

A) individual members of Congress from the relevant states.
B) the executive branch.
C) special committees of Congress.
D) state governors.
E) U.S. district courts.

Question 73

The text suggests that we might expect to find more mandates in policy areas where the government

A) spends less.
B) spends more.
C) wants the states to spend less.
D) has been involved a longer period of time.
E) cannot possibly enforce them.

Question 74

Which president tried to reverse the trend of Congressional focus on Washington's needs over local needs?

A) Clinton
B) Carter
C) Kennedy
D) Reagan
E) Ford

Question 75

When a locality is required by federal law to do something, regardless of whether it receives federal funding for that purpose, this duty is called a

A) condition of aid.
B) mandate.
C) string-attached edict.
D) court decision.
E) pontification.

Question 76

Judges have ordered Massachusetts to change the way it hires firefighters, even though the state does not receive aid from the federal government for fire fighting. Such an order is referred to as a

A) condition of aid.
B) quid pro quo order.
C) mandate.
D) pro bono requirement.
E) per curiam order.

Question 77

Which of the following statements regarding devolution is incorrect?

A) AFDC was ended and replaced by TANF.
B) Federal and state spending on most programs increased after 1996.
C) Devolution lacked strong public support.
D) Devolution seems to have resulted in more, not fewer, government rules and regulations.
E) None of the above.

Question 78

President _______ declared, in a State of the Union Address, that the era of big national government was over.

A) Bush
B) Reagan
C) Nixon
D) Eisenhower
E) Clinton

Question 79

When Republicans took control of Congress in 1994, the first key issue in their drive to reduce federal spending was

A) welfare.
B) defense.
C) education.
D) health.
E) public transportation.

Question 80

To qualify for certain federal highway funds, states must allow drivers to make a legal right-hand turn after stopping at a red light. This requirement by the federal government is known as a

A) mandate.
B) quid pro quo order.
C) condition of aid.
D) pro bono requirement.
E) per curiam order.