Deck 18: Cell Reproduction

Question 1

During the "gap" phases of the cell cycle, most of the activity is directed toward

A) DNA replication.
B) nuclear membrane synthesis.
C) resting for the next step.
D) sorting the chromosomes.
E) processes required for cell division.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

DNA replication occurs

A) between the gap phases of interphase.
B) immediately before prophase of mitosis.
C) during prophase of mitosis.
D) during prophase of meiosis.
E) at any time during cell division.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

When a eukaryotic cell divides, the daughter cells

A) manufacture all new organelles from material in the cytoplasm.
B) receive enough of the organelles to start up the new cells and produce additional organelles as needed.
C) produce individual organelles that attach to the spindle fibers and are distributed just like chromosomes.
D) produce an equal number of organelles distributed to each cell.
E) get cellular organelles by an unknown process.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The number of chromatids present in a duplicated chromosome is

A) 1.
B) undetermined.
C) half that of an unduplicated chromosome.
D) 2.
E) 4.

Question 5

Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids?

A) mother
B) daughter
C) sister
D) programmed
E) either mother or daughter

Question 6

Chromosomes are duplicated during which period?

A) M
B) D
C) G₁
D) G₂
E) S

Question 7

Chromosome pair number 23 is classified as

A) centrosomes.
B) somatosomes.
C) sex chromosomes.
D) autosomes.
E) corposomes.

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a somatic cell?

A) liver
B) skin
C) bone
D) blood
E) sperm

Question 9

When a cell undergoes mitosis,

A) the daughter cells have identical genes.
B) the daughter cells have genes identical to those of the "parent" cell that produced it.
C) the amount of cytoplasm in the "parent" cell and in each daughter cell is equal.
D) there is an exact duplication and division of all of the organelles between daughter cells.
E) the daughter cells have identical genes, and these genes are identical to those of the "parent" cells that produced them.

Question 10

Which of these statements concerning the centromere is NOT true?

A) It appears to join duplicated DNAs.
B) It anchors proteins to DNA.
C) It varies from one type of chromosome to the next.
D) It is the attachment site for microtubules.
E) It is a "pinched in" region.

Question 11

In mitosis, if a "parent" cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A) 64
B) 32
C) 16
D) 8
E) 4

Question 12

The chromosome number in human body cells is

A) 23.
B) 39.
C) 46.
D) 69.
E) variable depending on the cell.

Question 13

Chromosome pairs numbered 1 through 22 are classified as

A) centrosomes.
B) somatosomes.
C) sex chromosomes.
D) autosomes.
E) corposomes.

Question 14

Which statement is true of homologous chromosomes?

A) They are of unequal length.
B) Each gamete receives one member of each pair.
C) There are 46 pairs in humans.
D) They are identical in every way.
E) They include all chromosomes except X and Y.

Question 15

The "poles" of a cell are its

A) centrosomes.
B) centromeres.
C) autosomes.
D) centrioles.
E) automeres.

Question 16

The apparatus consisting of microtubules that directs chromosome movement during cell division is called the

A) spindle.
B) centriole.
C) histone.
D) centromere.
E) cleavage furrows.

Question 17

Cells with a double set of genetic information are described by the term

A) polyploid.
B) diploid.
C) triploid.
D) haploid.
E) tetraploid.

Question 18

The spindle apparatus is made of

A) Golgi bodies.
B) microtubules.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) nucleoprotein.
E) chromatids.

Question 19

Meiosis is considered a

A) duplicational division.
B) multiplication division.
C) parallel division.
D) reduction division.
E) autosome division.

Question 20

Which structure establishes where each sister chromatid will end up before a cell divides?

A) the centromeres
B) the spindle
C) the centrioles
D) the Golgi body
E) the centrosomes

Question 21

The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 22

In which of the stages below does the chromosome consist of two chromatids?

A) prophase and anaphase
B) metaphase, prophase, and anaphase
C) metaphase and prophase
D) metaphase, telophase, and prophase
E) metaphase, telophase, prophase, and anaphase

Question 23

If ionizing radiation affects a germ cell,

A) no sperm or eggs will be made.
B) more eggs and sperm than normal will be produced.
C) sperm and eggs will contain the diploid number of chromosomes.
D) damage to the DNA will be inherited by an infant causing genetic defects.
E) no problems will arise.

Question 24

In eukaryotic cells, which occurs during mitosis?

A) the duplication of chromatids
B) the replication of DNA
C) the pairing of homologous chromosomes
D) the fragmentation and disappearance of the nuclear envelope and nucleolus
E) a cleavage furrow is formed

Question 25

The chromosomes detach from one another and become visibly separated during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 26

The division of the plasma membrane of the cell begins with a

A) cleavage furrow.
B) membranous appendage.
C) membrane pocket.
D) cleavage ridge.
E) membrane hillock.

Question 27

Red blood cells are formed at a rate of

A) 2 - 3 million per second.
B) 2 - 3 million per minute.
C) 2 - 3 million per hour.
D) 10 million per day.
E) 50 million per hour.

Question 28

Ionizing radiation

A) breaks apart chromosomes.
B) alters genes.
C) extends the length of the DNA molecules.
D) links DNA molecules together.
E) both breaks apart chromosomes and alters genes.

Question 29

Which contractile protein pulls the plasma membrane inward to begin cytokinesis?

A) myosin
B) titin
C) actin
D) troponin
E) tropomyosin

Question 30

Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?

A) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
B) metaphase, telophase, prophase, anaphase
C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
E) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

Question 31

The chromosomes are moving to opposite poles during

A) prophase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.

Question 32

At the end of which phase are the chromosomes condensed?

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 33

The chromosomes and genes are actually replicated during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 34

The spindle apparatus becomes visible during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 35

Ionizing radiation that can harm living cells does so by

A) creating chemical compounds.
B) lysing lysosomes.
C) removing electrons from atoms to create positive ions.
D) creating buffers.
E) destroying buffers.

Question 36

Ionizing radiation includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) x-rays.
B) cosmic rays from outer space.
C) radio waves.
D) visible light.
E) microwaves.

Question 37

The contractile protein actin makes up which structures responsible for the formation of the cleavage furrow?

A) microtubules
B) microfilaments
C) microspindles
D) spindle fibers
E) centrioles

Question 38

The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during

A) prokaryotic fission.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) cytokinesis.
E) karyokinesis.

Question 39

The nuclear membrane reforms during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 40

The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during

A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT associated with meiosis?

A) reduction of the number of chromosomes
B) somatic cells
C) sexual reproduction
D) sperm and egg
E) germ cells

Question 42

If meiosis did not occur in sexually reproducing organisms,

A) growth of the zygote would be halted.
B) mitosis would be sufficient.
C) gametes would be haploid.
D) the chromosome number would double in each generation.
E) eggs would be haploid, but sperm would be diploid.

Question 43

Small doses of ionizing radiation over a long period of time cause less damage because

A) they are too low to affect cells.
B) they don't hit as many targets.
C) the body has time to repair damaged DNA.
D) the radiation is absorbed by macrophages.
E) the radiation is absorbed by red blood cells.

Question 44

The mature ovum is produced by maturation of the

A) oogonium.
B) primary oocyte.
C) secondary polar body.
D) primary polar body.
E) secondary oocyte.

Question 45

Gametetogenesis (gamete formation) is

A) the result of the process of mitosis.
B) the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
C) the formation of sex cells.
D) the fusion of gametes.
E) a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.

Question 46

Sexual reproduction

A) leads to uniform characteristics in a population.
B) results in new combinations of genetic traits.
C) produces genetic clones.
D) requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
E) produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.

Question 47

Sperm are formed directly from the maturation of

A) sperm mother cells.
B) spermatids.
C) spermatogonial cells.
D) primary spermatocytes.
E) secondary spermatocytes.

Question 48

Gametogenesis is

A) always the result of the process of meiosis.
B) the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
C) the formation of sex cells.
D) the fusion of gametes.
E) a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.

Question 49

Radioactive radon gas is emitted from

A) rocks and soil.
B) medical x-rays.
C) cosmic radiation.
D) nuclear medicine.
E) uranium mines.

Question 50

When a person receives a sudden, large dose of ionizing radiation, what symptoms may be expected to occur?

A) serious infections
B) intestinal hemorrhages
C) anemia
D) wounds that do not heal
E) all of these

Question 51

When a person receives a sudden, large dose of ionizing radiation, which cells are typically destroyed?

A) immune system cells
B) epithelial cells
C) epithelial cells of the intestine
D) red blood cells
E) all of these

Question 52

The diploid number of chromosomes found in a eukaryotic cell

A) indicates the phylogenetic position of the organism.
B) is constant during the life cycle.
C) is haploid among asexually reproducers and diploid if they reproduce sexually.
D) is cut in half by meiosis and is restored by fertilization.
E) is dependent on the age of the tissue.

Question 53

If a parent cell has 16 chromosomes and undergoes meiosis, each of the resulting cells will have how many chromosomes?

A) 64
B) 32
C) 16
D) 8
E) 4

Question 54

The stages of meiosis I are virtually the same as the stages of mitosis. The one major difference is

A) the homologous chromosomes line up opposite each other during metaphase.
B) there is no anaphase in meiosis I.
C) there is no prophase in meiosis I.
D) the homologous chromosomes line up next to each other during metaphase.
E) the homologous chromosomes line up at opposite ends of the spindle equator.

Question 55

The purpose of irradiating foods is to

A) increase the vitamin content.
B) increase the mineral content.
C) destroy harmful bacteria, fungi and other microorganisms.
D) limit spoilage.
E) both destroy harmful bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms and limit spoilage.

Question 56

The essence of meiosis is that

A) gametes are formed that receive one copy of each member of each pair of homologous chromosomes.
B) gametes are formed that are diploid.
C) each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes.
D) gametes are formed that are haploid.
E) each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes, and gametes are formed that are haploid.

Question 57

Which of the following cells is NOT haploid?

A) secondary spermatocyte
B) sperm
C) primary oocyte
D) spermatids
E) polar bodies

Question 58

Polar bodies

A) are dumping places for excess genetic material.
B) have no known biological function.
C) are produced by meiosis.
D) will serve as the gametes if something happens to the egg.
E) all of these except "will serve as the gametes if something happens to the egg"

Question 59

Which of the following will NOT develop into a gamete?

A) spermatogonium
B) polar bodies
C) oocyte
D) spermatid
E) secondary spermatocyte

Question 60

Through meiosis, all of the following occur EXCEPT

A) polar bodies are created in the female.
B) parental DNA is divided and distributed to form gametes.
C) the diploid chromosome number is reduced to haploid.
D) four times as many spermatids are produced than ova.
E) reproduction of autosomes.

Question 61

Chromosomes of a pair of homologous chromosomes may differ from other chromosomes in terms of

A) size.
B) shape.
C) alleles they carry.
D) position of the centromere.
E) all of these.

Question 62

Crossing over

A) increases variability in gametes.
B) results in only one exchange per homologue.
C) occurs between sister chromatids.
D) prevents genetic recombination.
E) is followed immediately by separation of each of the chromatids.

Question 63

Which is NOT true of human chromosomes?

A) The haploid number is 23.
B) The diploid number is 46.
C) There are 23 pairs of chromosomes.
D) Human gametes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes.
E) Human gametes end up with one of each type of 23 chromosomes.

Question 64

In prophase I of spermatogenesis, there are ____ chromatids.

A) 92
B) 23
C) 46
D) half as many (as in somatic cells)
E) twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)

Question 65

Chromatids are

A) attached at the centriole.
B) a pair of chromosomes, one from the mother and one from the father.
C) attached at their centromeres.
D) identical until crossing over occurs.
E) both attached at their centromeres and identical until crossing over occurs.

Question 66

Different, or alternative, forms of the same gene are called

A) genetomorphs.
B) alleles.
C) mutants.
D) chromatids.
E) homologous.

Question 67

Which does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis?

A) cytokinesis
B) formation of groups of four chromatids
C) homologue pairing
D) crossing over
E) condensation of chromatin

Question 68

Homologous chromosomes

A) may exchange parts during meiosis.
B) have alleles for the same characteristics even though the gene expression may not be the same.
C) are in pairs that have one chromosome of each pair from the father and one from the mother.
D) pair up during meiosis.
E) all of these

Question 69

Which of the following events does NOT occur in prophase II but does occur in prophase I?

A) crossing over
B) synapsis
C) spindle formation
D) crossing over and synapsis, only
E) crossing over, synapsis, and spindle formation.

Question 70

An x-shaped appearance of chromosomes during the process of meiosis provides evidence of

A) irradiation damage.
B) crossing over.
C) chromosomal aberration.
D) fertilization.
E) spindle fiber formation.

Question 71

The cell itself begins to elongate during which phase of meiosis?

A) prophase I
B) metaphase I
C) anaphase I
D) telophase I
E) metaphase II

Question 72

Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during

A) metaphase I.
B) telophase I.
C) prophase II.
D) metaphase II.
E) anaphase II.

Question 73

Meiosis typically results in the production of

A) 2 diploid cells.
B) 4 diploid cells.
C) 4 haploid cells.
D) 2 haploid cells.
E) 1 triploid cell.

Question 74

Homologous chromosomes may swap segments of genetic information during which phase of meiosis?

A) metaphase I
B) metaphase II
C) prophase I
D) prophase II
E) anaphase I

Question 75

Crossing over

A) generally results in binary fission.
B) involves nucleoli.
C) involves breakages and exchanges being made between sister chromatids.
D) alters the composition of chromosomes and results in new combinations of alleles being channeled into the daughter cells.
E) is the same as disjunction.

Question 76

During meiosis II,

A) cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells.
B) sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other.
C) homologous chromosomes pair up.
D) homologous chromosomes separate.
E) sister chromatids exchange parts.

Question 77

Copies of chromosomes linked together at their centromeres at the beginning of meiosis are appropriately called what kind of chromatids?

A) mother
B) daughter
C) sister
D) homologous
E) analogous

Question 78

Pairing of homologues and crossing over occur during

A) anaphase I.
B) metaphase II.
C) prophase I.
D) prophase II.
E) telophase II.

Question 79

Anaphase

A) involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
B) is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
C) is initiated when the newly divided centromeres begin to move apart.
D) results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
E) does not occur in meiosis II.

Question 80

Sister chromatids are separated from each other during

A) metaphase I.
B) anaphase I.
C) telophase II.
D) anaphase II.
E) metaphase II.