Deck 7: Political Parties

Question 1

The Populists are also called _____.

A) the Green Party
B) the Socialist Party
C) the Federalist Party
D) the People's Party
E) the Republican Party

Answer 1

D

Question 2

_____ is a process in which the popular support for and relative strength of the political parties shift, and the parties are reestablished with different coalitions of supporters.

A) Flipping
B) Realignment
C) Dealignment
D) Tipping
E) Segregation

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The Federalists supported a strong central government that would:

A) oppose the ratification of the Constitution.
B) encourage the development of commerce and manufacturing.
C) promote a shared political perspective or ideology, such as climate change.
D) support the two-party political system.
E) encourage the development of the farming sector.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

In the 1890s, the Populists-the People's Party-advocated _____ as a way of lessening the debts of farmers in the West and South.

A) farming
B) inflation
C) slavery
D) trading
E) labor growth

Question 5

A(n) _____ can be defined as a group of individuals who organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine policy.

A) political party
B) congressional committee
C) parliament
D) union
E) electorate

Question 6

Which of the following parties argued against ratification of the Constitution?

A) The Green Party
B) The Republican Party
C) The Anti-Federalist Party
D) The Federalist Party
E) The Libertarian Party

Question 7

As the Whigs and Democrats competed for the White House from 1835 to 1854, which of the following was common to both groups?

A) Both the Whigs and the Democrats tried to favor rural development.
B) Both the Whigs and the Democrats tried to prevent child labor.
C) Both the Whigs and the Democrats tried to favor women empowerment.
D) Both the Whigs and the Democrats tried to avoid the issue of immigration.
E) Both the Whigs and the Democrats tried to avoid the issue of slavery.

Question 8

Which of the following was a consequence of the Great Depression of the 1930s?

A) It resulted in dealignment.
B) It destroyed the belief that the grand old party could better manage the economy.
C) Abraham Lincoln became the president of the United States.
D) The Republican Party came back to power at the national level.
E) The Whig coalition fell apart, and most northern Whigs were absorbed into the new Republican Party.

Question 9

By 1856, the Whig coalition had fallen apart, and most northern Whigs were absorbed into the new _____, which opposed the extension of slavery into new territories.

A) People's Party
B) Republican Party
C) Democratic Party
D) Libertarian Party
E) Socialist Party

Question 10

Beginning with the presidential elections of 2000, the term blue state has been used to describe a state in the United States whose citizens primarily vote for _____.

A) the Democratic Party
B) the Republican Party
C) the Green Party
D) the Libertarian Party
E) the American Independent Party

Question 11

After the 2010 elections, many of the new Republican members of Congress were pledged to:

A) the Tea Party philosophy of liberalism.
B) the Tea Party's plans of breaking political deadlock in Washington.
C) the Tea Party's plans of moving the Republican Party toward more liberal positions.
D) the Tea Party philosophy of no-compromise conservatism.
E) the Tea Party's plans of reducing the polarization in Congress.

Question 12

Which of the following American political parties picked up the nickname "grand old party?"

A) The Green Party
B) The Socialist Party
C) The Federalist Party
D) The Democratic Party
E) The Republican Party

Question 13

In the context of the second realignment in American history, the Democrats appealed to:

A) merchants.
B) small farmers.
C) bankers.
D) business owners.
E) foreign traders.

Question 14

Jeffersonian Republicans believed that the nation's welfare would be best served if:

A) it was ruled by its wealthiest and best-educated citizens.
B) government policies served farming interests.
C) the government had more power than the states.
D) government policies promoted the development of commerce.
E) the government dominated Congress.

Question 15

Which of the following statements demonstrates the belief that compromise with the other party in the legislature is a form of betrayal?

A) The minority party should not oppose majority-party measures.
B) The independent voters are likely to increase in number over the years.
C) The realignment process is often replaced by the dealignment process.
D) The two-party system should be promoted in the United States.
E) The minority party should not attempt to improve legislation proposed by the majority.

Question 16

Which of the following statements is true of the history of American political parties?

A) Political parties were embraced by America's founding fathers as a necessary element of a functioning democracy.
B) The role of political parties was clearly defined by America's founders.
C) Two major political factions were formed in America even before the Constitution was ratified.
D) Throughout the course of American history, the major political parties have not changed their ideologies.
E) The Democratic Party was the first political party in America.

Question 17

Which of the following instances of the 1930s was referred to as the New Deal?

A) George Washington's farewell address that legalized slavery
B) Franklin D. Roosevelt's programs to fight the Great Depression
C) The splitting of Jefferson's Republicans into two groups
D) The new Republican coalition cemented by Ronald Reagan
E) The support gained by the Whigs from bankers, business owners, and many southern planters

Question 18

_____ in his Farewell Address said that the "spirit of party . . . agitates the community with ill-founded jealousies and false alarms, kindles the animosity of one part against another, foments occasionally riot and insurrection."

A) George Washington
B) John Adams
C) Thomas Jefferson
D) Andrew Jackson
E) Daniel Webster

Question 19

Which of the following is true of political parties?

A) The concept of political parties is undefined in the U.S. Constitution.
B) The development of political parties was foreseen in the American political history.
C) The founders of the U.S. Constitution considered political parties as a practical need that would link the citizens to the government.
D) There are four major political parties in the United States.
E) The Federalists and the Anti-Federalists were formed after the ratification of the U.S. Constitution.

Question 20

Beginning with the presidential elections of 2000, the term red state has been used to describe a state in the United States whose citizens primarily vote for _____.

A) the Democratic Party
B) the Republican Party
C) the Green Party
D) the Libertarian Party
E) the American Independent Party

Question 21

Tipping can happen due to:

A) balanced number of all types of voters in a state.
B) absence of independent voters in a state.
C) changes in education levels and occupations.
D) increasing polarization of political parties.
E) changing political identities of voters.

Question 22

In the context of American political parties, the party in government helps to organize the government's agenda by:

A) coaxing and convincing its own party members in office to vote for its policies.
B) gaining the financial support of lobbyists.
C) supporting nonpartisan elections.
D) electing the delegates to the national party committee.
E) influencing the national party chairperson to take decisions in its favor.

Question 23

The structure of each political party's national organization includes four major elements:

A) the national convention, the national chairperson, the state central committees, and the congressional campaign committees.
B) state party organizations, the state central committees, the national chairperson, and the national committee.
C) the national convention, the national committee, the national chairperson, and the congressional campaign committees.
D) wards, precincts, state central committees, and the national convention.
E) the presidential candidate, the state party chairpersons, the congressional campaign committees, and the delegates.

Question 24

Which of the following statements is true of state organizations?

A) The powers and duties of state party organizations remain the same across states.
B) State party organizations are built around a central committee and a chairperson.
C) The state chairperson of a state party organization is selected through primaries.
D) State party organizations are very closely tied to the party's national structure.
E) State party organizations are highly centralized.

Question 25

Which of the following functions of political parties helps simplify voting choices for the electorate?

A) They act as the major institution through which the executive and legislative branches cooperate with each other.
B) They volunteer at the polling places.
C) They help citizens learn about important political issues.
D) They inform voters of the shortcomings of the majority party's agenda.
E) They take the larger number of people who want to run for office and narrow the field.

Question 26

The party in the electorate consists:

A) of members who regard themselves as independents.
B) of all the people who describe themselves as Democrats or Republicans.
C) only of those members who are electoral candidates.
D) exclusively of party identifiers.
E) exclusively of party activists.

Question 27

_____ are almost always seen as a base of support for the Democrats.

A) Labor unions
B) Tea Party advocates
C) Business groups
D) Purists
E) Monarchs

Question 28

The growing detachment of voters from both major political parties is known as _____.

A) realignment
B) tipping
C) dealignment
D) political polarization
E) segregation

Question 29

Political parties use newspaper articles, debates, and television announcements to present their views about important political issues. These activities :

A) help citizens learn about the issues, form opinions, and consider proposed solutions.
B) enable the parties to coordinate policy-related issues among the three branches of the government.
C) enable the parties to adopt a view broad enough on these issues that no group will be alienated.
D) promote unity among diverse party factions.
E) support the party platforms or parts of it.

Question 30

In the context of the structure of American political parties, both major American political parties:

A) are closely knit or highly organized.
B) are fragmented and decentralized.
C) have a central power and a direct chain of command.
D) are fashioned in such a way that a single individual or group can direct all party members.
E) are organized in such a way that all party members are at the same level.

Question 31

Party identifiers are:

A) the members of a political party who are identified easily by the people.
B) those people who associate themselves as volunteers of a political party.
C) the symbols used by a political party to popularize it among the public.
D) those people who identify themselves as being members of a political party.
E) those people who eventually become the candidates for office.

Question 32

Which of the following functions is performed at the national conventions?

A) Organizing the grassroots foundation of party supporters
B) Directing the work of the national committee
C) Writing a party platform
D) Helping elect party members to Congress
E) Recruiting new voters

Question 33

Between elections, candidates depend on active party members to:

A) organize fund-raisers.
B) attend party meetings.
C) conduct door-to-door canvasses.
D) participate in Web campaigns.
E) organize speeches and appearances.

Question 34

Clara, a resident of Vanadia, supports the UND party. The UND party advocates employment for all, without any racial discrimination. Clara firmly believes that the party's ideologies will actively promote values that are important to American society. In this scenario, Clara's support for the UND party reflects _____.

A) motivational incentives
B) purposive incentives
C) material incentives
D) career incentives
E) tangible incentives

Question 35

Larry, an ex-serviceman, has joined the Republican Party because his family members are staunch Republicans. Larry has most likely joined the party _____.

A) for solidarity incentives
B) for material incentives
C) for personal benefits
D) to benefit from patronage
E) to contest as an independent candidate

Question 36

The Democratic Party balances the competing interests of its members by:

A) hiring party members who are held together by a shared set of ideas.
B) appointing a party president who is given the absolute authority to take important decisions.
C) involving supporters who prize doctrinal purity.
D) adopting a view broad enough to encompass the opinions of all the party members.
E) adopting the view of the majority.

Question 37

The _____ consists of the political party leaders who direct party business during the four years between the national party conventions.

A) special interest group
B) national party platform
C) issue advocacy group
D) national party committee
E) political action committee

Question 38

Which of the following statements is true of the national party committee?

A) It is convened every four years during the summer before the presidential elections.
B) Each state elects a number of delegates to the national party committee.
C) A select group of key delegates writes the party platform.
D) The delegates of the national party committee have the most important job of nominating the party's presidential and vice-presidential candidates.
E) Members of the national party committee are elected by the local party organizations.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true of the functions of political parties?

A) They act as the major institutions through which the executive and legislative branches cooperate with each other.
B) They help increase the voting choices for the electorate by widening the pool of candidates contesting in the general elections.
C) They allow the executive and legislative branches of the government to function independently of each other.
D) They keep the public from interfering in the affairs of the government.
E) They work together to fashion legislation that serves only their own interests.

Question 40

One of the most important duties of the national party committee includes:

A) drafting legislation to be introduced in the next session of Congress.
B) taking part in nonpartisan elections.
C) writing the party platform every two years.
D) planning how to support the party's candidate in the next presidential election.
E) providing funds for the national convention.

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true of nonpartisan elections?

A) Lobbyists sponsor the major parties.
B) Candidates need to be endorsed by a political party.
C) Party identification never appears on the ballot.
D) Party labels appear on the ballot.
E) More than one candidate from a single party competes in the general elections.

Question 42

Which of the following statements is true of American politics?

A) Americans who are unhappy with the two major political parties cannot participate in American politics.
B) A key characteristic of recent politics has been the extreme nonpartisanship of party activists and members of Congress.
C) The rules governing campaign financing hinder the major parties as well as the minor parties.
D) Minor parties have found it extremely difficult to compete with the major parties for votes.
E) The rolling realignment after the elections of 1968 has resulted in parties that are much more heterogeneous.

Question 43

Why are third parties referred to as the unsung heroes of American politics?

A) They eliminate the difference between the major and minor parties.
B) They help the major parties win elections by splitting their votes.
C) They have lasted longer than the two major parties.
D) They provide a major economic benefit to the country.
E) They bring new issues to the forefront of public debate.

Question 44

The Green Party, an issue-oriented party, did not fade into history because:

A) it was formed by a leader with a strong personality.
B) it believes in a particular political doctrine.
C) it became indifferent to some of the minor social issues.
D) it broadened its scope beyond just a single area of concern.
E) it partnered with major parties to resolve social issues.

Question 45

What is most likely to happen when the leader around whom a splinter party is formed steps aside?

A) The party will be renamed.
B) The party will face dealignment.
C) The party will have to change its label.
D) The party will collapse.
E) The party will become ineligible for elections.

Question 46

Jefferson's Republicans is the party that was later renamed as the Republican Party.

Question 47

Liason, a third party, has split the vote in a recent state election. As a result, the major party, which was supposed to win, loses and the other major party wins. In this scenario, Liason plays the _____.

A) "spoiler" role
B) "progressive" role
C) "reformist" role
D) "regressive" role
E) "ideological" role

Question 48

The Neutral Party, a major political party, nominates Kevin Strauss for the presidential elections. David King, another strong contender for the post, splits from the Neutral Party and forms the Blue Party to promote his candidacy. The Blue Party best exemplifies a(n):

A) ideological party.
B) personality party .
C) issue-oriented party.
D) single-issue party.
E) reform party.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true of the procedure of voting for governors in the majority of U.S. states?

A) It allows more than one candidate to contest from a single party.
B) It allows the s plitting of electoral votes.
C) It is held at the district level.
D) It takes place on a statewide, winner-take-all basis.
E) It makes it easier for third-party candidates to win.

Question 50

Splinter parties that develop out of a split within a major party are also known as _____.

A) ideological parties
B) personality parties
C) conservative parties
D) reformed parties
E) issue-oriented parties

Question 51

The United States has a two-party system which means that:

A) only two parties nominate candidates to run in general elections.
B) the two major parties-the Democrats and the Republicans-dominate national politics.
C) candidates must belong to one of the two major parties to run in state elections.
D) all voters identify with either the Democratic Party or the Republican Party.
E) third parties are not allowed to be formed in this country.

Question 52

Geography is one of the many factors that can determine party identification.

Question 53

A party known as Women-Centric was formed with the vision of highlighting the need for increase in women employment. This initiative was taken when the ratio of men to women employment saw a massive decrease in the country of Kuranata. This form of third party is referred to as:

A) a traditional party.
B) a personality party.
C) a splinter party.
D) an ideological party.
E) an issue-oriented party.

Question 54

People's Choice, a political party, believes that the economy of the United States would improve if the market philosophy shifts from a capitalist approach to a socialist one. The goal of production should be to satisfy human needs, rather than to gain profits. The party's primary agenda is to push for this change. Given this information, People's Choice is a(n) _____.

A) issue-oriented party
B) traditional party
C) personality party
D) splinter party
E) ideological party

Question 55

The Free Soil Party organized in 1848 to oppose the expansion of slavery into the western territories is an example of a(n) _____.

A) ideological party
B) issue-oriented party
C) personality party
D) traditional party
E) splinter party

Question 56

Identify a true statement about third parties in American politics.

A) They enjoy more electoral success than major parties.
B) Since they are less in number and variety, they are easy to classify.
C) It is easier for them to campaign statewide than to appeal to voters in a smaller district.
D) In all states, they need only a few signatures to place their candidates on the ballot.
E) They have brought many political issues to the public's attention.

Question 57

In practice, all major American political parties are closely knit, organized structures where the chairperson of the party dictates how the organization would be run.

Question 58

The Republican primary electorate is quite liberal.

Question 59

If a political party is to translate its promises into public policies, the job must be done by the party in government.

Question 60

A single-member district:

A) does not allow independent candidates to contest in state elections .
B) is where the parliament elects one member from each district to their state legislature.
C) is represented by multiple elected officials from different parties, according to the proportion of the vote each party receives.
D) is where voters elect one member from their district to the House of Representatives and to their state legislature.
E) does not include federal and state legislative districts.

Question 61

In the context of elections since 2010, discuss how Republicans have done much better in midterm elections than in presidential ones.

Question 62

In the context of politics, _________ is a system of rewarding the party faithful and workers with government jobs or contracts.

A) patronage
B) party membership grant
C) party- a id
D) sponsorship

Question 63

Briefly explain the reasons why the third parties have found it extremely difficult to compete with the major parties for votes.

Question 64

Business groups such as the U.S. Chamber of Commerce are viewed as key _________ players.

A) Libertarian
B) Progressive
C) Republican
D) Democratic

Question 65

_________ are party members who help to organize and oversee party functions and planning during and between campaigns, and may even become candidates for office.

A) Party activists
B) Party identifiers
C) Party supporters
D) Lobbyists

Question 66

The Bull Moose Party is an examp le of a(n) _________.

A) ideological party
B) personality party
C) conservative party
D) issue-oriented party

Question 67

Briefly explain how political parties run their campaigns.

Question 68

Briefly explain the four major elements of the national party organization.

Question 69

In 1948, the _________ adopted a civil rights plank as part of the party platform at their national convention.

A) Democrats
B) Republicans
C) Reform Party
D) Whigs

Question 70

When a party has no dominant power with a direct chain of command, it is said to be _________.

A) decentralized
B) fragmented
C) an independent party
D) a federalist party

Question 71

After Thomas Jefferson won the presidency and his party won control of Congress, the _________ never returned to power and became the first American political party to go out of existence.

A) People's Party
B) Whigs
C) Federalists
D) National Republicans

Question 72

The election of 1932 brought FranklinD) Roosevelt to the presidency and the _________ back to power at the national level.

A) Democrats
B) Republicans
C) Reform Party
D) Whigs

Question 73

In the context of the ratification of the U.S. Constitution, t he _________ supported states ' rights and feared a too-powerful central government.

A) People's Party
B) Whigs
C) Federalists
D) Anti-Federalists

Question 74

In general, state party organizations have a _________ who is usually a powerful party member chosen by the organization's central committee. In some instances, however, he or she is selected by the governor or a senator from that state.

A) party primary
B) party identifier
C) state caucus
D) state chairperson

Question 75

Discuss why people join political parties and explain the reasons for a person choosing one party over another.