Deck 27: Infectious Diseases: Fever

Question 1

The ____ is that time between contact with the infectious microbe and the appearance of the first symptoms.

A) virulence period
B) incubation period
C) prodromal phase
D) residual phase

Answer 1

incubation period

Question 2

Botulism is most famous for causing typhoid fever.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

A fungus reproduces by means of ____.

A) meiosis
B) spores
C) pollen
D) cysts

Answer 3

spores

Question 4

Initial treatment of the patient who is mentally dysfunctional should be focused on eliminating hypoxia and hypoglycemia as potential causes.

Question 5

____ are lymphocyte B cells and T cells that are programmed to attack a specific pathogen with specific proteins, called antigens, which distinguish the pathogen from normal cells.

A) Prions
B) Endotoxins
C) Antibodies
D) Pyogenes

Question 6

The symptoms associated with the pneumonic plague include headache, lethargy, and-perhaps most importantly- ____, which is bloody sputum.

A) burnetii
B) haemophilus
C) pertussis
D) hemoptysis

Question 7

____ from a disease is the number of infected individuals.

A) Attenuation
B) Virulence
C) Mortality
D) Morbidity

Question 8

Worms (the scientific term is helminthes) are parasites that live inside the body and feed off the host.

Question 9

Funguses are like helminthes in that they are both eukaryotes, a group of microorganisms that contain a nucleus.

Question 10

Elevated cytokine levels decreases the release of nitric oxide.

Question 11

____ have an advantage over these other life forms because they are mobile, typically via amoeboid action or with a tail (flagella) to propel them.

A) Protozoa
B) Bacterium
C) Fungi
D) Viruses

Question 12

The presence of a benign microbe may prevent an infection from another microbe through ____.

A) symbiosis
B) osmosis
C) spores
D) competitive inhibition

Question 13

One of the major roles of macrophages is to introduce foreign proteins found on the microbe, called an antigen, to helper T cells who make antibodies.

Question 14

A(n) ____ disease is any disease that is transmitted from an animal (a vector) to humans.

A) zoonotic
B) pandemic
C) RSV
D) epidemic

Question 15

Delirium is a progressive deterioration of mental function.

Question 16

The brain of the elderly patient has poor tolerance for the hypoglycemia that can occur when the patient is hypermetabolic due to infection.

Question 17

The symptom pattern for the common cold includes ____, discharge from a mucous membrane such as the runny nose (rhinorrhea) and a sore throat secondary to postnasal drip into the oropharynx.

A) prodromal phase
B) incubation period
C) catarrhal signs
D) residual phase

Question 18

Hepatitis D is caused by an DNA virus.

Question 19

Although an infection can occur anywhere in the body, most infections in the elderly can be linked to one of three sources, represented by the mnemonic ____.

A) SUP
B) UPS
C) PUS
D) SPU

Question 20

The primary source, or reservoir, for pathogenic E. coli is hogs.

Question 21

The Paramedic is most concerned about those microbes that produce disease, called ____________________.

Question 22

____________________ is an acute alteration of mental status secondary to a physiologic imbalance.

Question 23

____ is a pathological condition that arises when cytokine levels become so elevated that the cytokines have a negative effect on the body.

A) FUO (Fever of Unknown Origin)
B) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
D) Sudden inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

Question 24

If purulence is on the surface of the skin, then macules filled with the purulence can form into small pimples, larger boils, or interconnected boils called ____.

A) carbuncles
B) tumors
C) abscesses
D) cavities

Question 25

A(n) ____________________ is an attack of microorganisms upon the body that results in disease.

Question 26

Natural killer cells kill all unnatural cells by releasing proteins that connect to cells that are missing receptors that mark the cell as native, and force a process called ____.

A) phagocytosis
B) apoptosis
C) antigenosis
D) pyelonephritis

Question 27

The cardinal signs of an infection are caused by the ____________________ response.

Question 28

The ____ continues the inflammatory response by maintaining the vasodilation, specifically the polypeptide bradykinin, a potent vasodilator.

A) circulatory system
B) thrombotic system
C) pulmonary system
D) kinin system

Question 29

____________________ are proinflammatory chemical mediators that signal immune cells-such as T cells and macrophages-to respond to the infection.

Question 30

The drug of choice in the case of SIRS is ____.

A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) norepinephrine
D) adrenaline

Question 31

____ is a food-borne disease that was more common before modern food canning.

A) Amoebic dysentery
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Cholera
D) Botulism

Question 32

____ is caused by ingestion of contaminated water which contains protozoa, unicellular life forms that consume bacteria.

A) Amoebic dysentery
B) Cholera
C) Gastroenteritis
D) Botulism

Question 33

____ is a syndrome that occurs most commonly in children from three months to three years and presents as difficulty in breathing and presents with a characteristic raspy or brassy cough.

A) Pertussis
B) Croup
C) Bronchitis
D) Laryngitis

Question 34

The ____ is that period of incubation preceding an infection.

A) communicable period
B) residual period
C) prodrome
D) acme

Question 35

____ is an ascending urinary tract infection.

A) Pyelonephritis
B) Nephritis
C) Cytitis
D) Hepatitis