Deck 12: LPIC-OT Exam 701: DevOps Tools Engineer

Question 1

What happens when a merge conflict occurs in git?

A) The conflicting files remain unchanged in the local repository.
B) Conflict markers are added to the files.
C) A new branch containing the remote changes is created.
D) The affected files are flagged as conflicting.
E) The newest version is placed in the local repository.

Answer 1

The affected files are flagged as conflicting.
The newest version is placed in the local repository.

Question 2

Which of the following container names could have been assigned automatically by Docker?

A) docker-c00001
B) 2.0.17.172
C) container
D) c0023817
E) clever_ritchie

Answer 2

clever_ritchie

Question 3

Which Ansible keyword is used in a playbook to store the result (i.e. return code) of a task in a variable?

A) register
B) return
C) output
D) result
E) set_fact

Answer 3

register

Question 4

Which of the following commands lists the cookbooks available on a Chef server?

A) kitchen cookbook list
B) chef-client cookbook list
C) chef-server cookbook list
D) chef-solo cookbook list
E) knife cookbook list

Question 5

What is the Puppet equivalent to an Ansible Playbook called?

A) A Puppet Catalog
B) A Puppet Playbook
C) A Puppet Factsheet
D) A Puppet Declaration
E) A Puppet Manifest

Question 6

What implications does container virtualization have for DevOps?

A) Containers decouple the packaging of an application from its infrastructure.
B) Containers require developers to have detailed knowledge of their IT infrastructure.
C) Containers let developers test their software under production conditions.
D) Containers complicate the deployment of software and require early deployment tests.
E) Containers require application specific adjustment to the container platform.

Question 7

A declarative Jenkins pipeline contains the following excerpt: parameters {     string (name: 'TargetEnvironment', defaultValue: 'staging', description: 'Target environment') } How can a task use the value provided for TargetEnvironment ?

A) {{TargetEnvironment}}
B) $TargetEnvironment
C) %TargetEnvironment%
D) ${params.TargetEnvironment}
E) $ENV{TargetEnvironment}

Question 8

Which of the following mechanisms are used for service discovery in a container environment?

A) The container platform offers a command like docker service discover which should be run within a container. The container platform offers a command like docker service discover which should be run within a container.
B) The container platform sets environment variables containing service information within the containers.
C) The container platform lists localhost ports assigned to containers in each container's / etc/services file. The container platform lists localhost ports assigned to containers in each container's / etc/services file.
D) The container platform mounts the sockets for all available services into the container's file systems.
E) The container platforms maintains DNS records which point to containers offering a specific service.

Question 9

Which of the following statements are true about Jenkins?

A) Jenkins is specific to Java based applications.
B) Jenkins can delegate tasks to slave nodes.
C) Jenkins only works on local files and cannot use SCM repositories.
D) Jenkins' functionality is determined by plugins.
E) Jenkins includes a series of integrated testing suites.

Question 10

The file index.php , which is being maintained in a git repository, was changed locally and contains an error. If the error has not been committed to the repository yet, which of the following git commands reverts the local copy of to the latest committed version in the current branch?

A) git lastver - index.php
B) git revert - index.php
C) git checkout - index.php
D) git clean - index.php
E) git repair - index.php

Question 11

If a Dockerfile references the container's base image without a specific version tag, which tag of that image is used to create the container?

A) latest
B) default
C) current
D) nightly
E) lts

Question 12

Which of the following HTTP methods are used by REST?

A) CREATE
B) REPLACE
C) PUT
D) DELETE
E) GET

Question 13

How is a Docker container image retrieved from a Docker registry?

A) Docker retrieves a ZIP archive which is extracted into the container's root file system.
B) Multiple stacked images are retrieved and layered on top of each other.
C) A flat hard disk image is downloaded once per container and mounted as the root file system.
D) The registry merger all components of the image into one file which is shipped to Docker.
E) The container is built from an ISO file along with a configuration for an unattended installation.

Question 14

Given the following excerpt of a Dockerfile : Run apt-get -y update && apt-get install -y fortunes && apt-get clean Why are the multiple apt-get commands combined in one RUN statement instead of using multiple RUN statements?

A) To prevent the commands from running in parallel because Docker executes all RUN statements in their own container at the same time.
B) To ensure the execution order of the commands because Docker might evaluate the statements of a Dockerfile in any order. To ensure the execution order of the commands because Docker might evaluate the statements of a in any order.
C) To avoid the creation of unnecessary images because Docker creates a new image for each RUN statement. To avoid the creation of unnecessary images because Docker creates a new image for each RUN statement.
D) To execute both commands in the same container instance and void Docker to reset the container to the original base image.
E) To execute the apt-get install command only if the apt-get update command was successful because Docker does not check the success of RUN statements. To execute the apt-get install command only if the apt-get update command was successful because Docker does not check the success of statements.

Question 15

What statement is true regarding the Swarm service created by the following command? docker service create --name myweb --network webnet --mode global nginx

A) It runs exactly one time in the Swarm and cannot be scaled.
B) It runs exactly once on each node in a Swarm.
C) It runs on one node by default and can be scaled to an arbitrary number of replicas.
D) It runs on all nodes which provide the network webnet . It runs on all nodes which provide the network webnet .
E) It runs only on those nodes which support the network type global . It runs only on those nodes which support the network type global

Question 16

Which of the following git commands is used to manage files in a repository?

A) git rm
B) git cp
C) git mv
D) git move
E) git copy

Question 17

Which of the log messages below matches the following Logstash grok filter? grok {    match => ["message", "%{SYSLOGBASE} new node %{IPORHOST:node}" ] }

A) Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode: new node 198.51.100.103 at clustermanager:12353
B) Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[12353]: new node 198.51.100.103
C) Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[198.51.100.103]: new node
D) %{SYSLOG-FROM:headnode clustermanager[12353]} new node 198.51.100.103
E) clustermanager[12353]: Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode new node 198.51.100.103

Question 18

A Dockerfile contains the statements: COPY data/  /data/ VOLUME /data What happens when the resulting container is started without any additional volume configuration?

A) Files existing in / data / in the image are not available in the running container. Files existing in / data / in the image are not available in the running container.
B) Changes to files within / data / affect the Docker image and all other containers derived from it. Changes to files within / / affect the Docker image and all other containers derived from it.
C) Existing files from / data / in the image are copied to the new volume. Existing files from / / in the image are copied to the new volume.
D) An error is raised because / data / already contains data when the volume is mounted. An error is raised because / / already contains data when the volume is mounted.
E) A new volume is created and mounted to / data / within the new container. A new volume is created and mounted to / / within the new container.

Question 19

Which of the following information is contained in the output of git status ?

A) Changed files that will not be part of the next commit.
B) Locked files which cannot be edited until the lock is released.
C) Changed files that will be part of the next commit.
D) Unchanged files which have not been edited locally.
E) Untracked files which are not subject to version control.

Question 20

Which statements are true regarding databases during the deployment of a new release of a service using canary deployment?

A) Changes to the database schema can take long and reduce the database performance.
B) Traffic to the database will significantly increase because of the additional service instance.
C) The database schema must be compatible to all running versions of a service.
D) The database is locked while its content is copied to the canary database.
E) Canary deployments require two synchronized instances of each database.

Question 21

Which of the following elements are presents in a Vagrant box file?

A) A Vagrant guest configuration file that is used to create instances of the box.
B) Configuration files for provisioners such as Ansible.
C) The installer for the Vagrant version which is required to run the box.
D) A metadata file describing the box and its requirements.
E) A base file system image in a format supported by the provider of the box.

Question 22

What is tested by unit tests?

A) The syntactical correctness of the source code of a software component.
B) The formal validity of a service's external REST API.
C) The integration of multiple component of the same software.
D) The correctness of a specific function of a software component.
E) The throughput, load capacity and latency of a service.

Question 23

Which of the following statements describes the principal concept behind test driven development?

A) Tests may not be written by the same development team that wrote the tested code.
B) All tests are generated automatically from the tested source code.
C) Tests are written before the function / method is implemented.
D) The only acceptable reason to write a test is to prevent fixed bugs from occurring again.
E) Instead of testing software automatically, manual tests are performed and logged daily.

Question 24

A service should be provided to arbitrary clients on the Internet using HTTPS. Any standard client on the Internet should be able to consume the service without further configuration. Which of the following approaches can be used to implement these requirements?

A) Configure the web servers to not use a server certificate when serving HTTPS.
B) Generate a self-signed certificates during the deployment of each backend server.
C) Use a certificate issuing service to request certificates during each server deployment.
D) Use a load balancer that decrypts incoming requests and passes them on in plain HTTP.
E) Install a wildcard certificate and the respective private key on all the backend servers.

Question 25

Which configuration option in the Ansible inventory is issued control privilege escalation of the remote user?

A) priv_user
B) elevate
C) super
D) become
E) sudo

Question 26

Which of the following tasks can Logstash fulfill without using other components of the Elastic Stack?

A) Receive log data from remote systems.
B) Store log data persistently.
C) Aggregate log data over a period of time.
D) Process log data to extract information.
E) Forward log data to other services.

Question 27

Which of the following conditionals exist in an Ansible playbook?

A) with_nodes
B) with_playbook
C) with_sequence
D) with_items
E) with_nested

Question 28

How does Vagrant run virtual machines?

A) Vagrant uses a vagrant-specific hypervisor called VagrantVM.
B) Vagrant has to be run within a running virtual machine which is not controlled by Vagrant.
C) Vagrant ships with an embedded version of VirtualBox.
D) Vagrant uses so-called provides which control external hypervisors such as VirtualBox.
E) Vagrant generates virtual machine images but does not provide a mechanism to run them.

Question 29

How is cloud-init integrated with a managed system image?

A) cloud-init provides the cloud-init-worker command which has to be invoked periodically within the running instance. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-worker command which has to be invoked periodically within the running instance.
B) cloud-init provides systemd units which must be included in several stages of the booting process of the instance.
C) cloud-init provides its own startup mechanism which replaces the instance's original init system, such as systemd.
D) cloud-init provides a Linux kernel module that must be included and loaded in the instance's initramfs.
E) cloud-init provides the cloud-init-daemon service which is launched during startup and keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration. cloud-init-daemon service which is launched during startup and keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration.

Question 30

What does the command packer validate template.json do?

A) The command verifies that the latest build of the template can be run without downloading additional images or artifacts.
B) The command verifies that the file template.json is a syntactically correct and complete Packer template. The command verifies that the file template.json is a syntactically correct and complete Packer template.
C) The command verifies that all existing artifacts generated by template.json have their original checksums. The command verifies that all existing artifacts generated by have their original checksums.
D) The command verifies that all source images referenced in template.json are available and have valid cryptographic signatures. The command verifies that all source images referenced in are available and have valid cryptographic signatures.
E) The command verifies that images generated previously by template.json still use the most recent source images. The command verifies that images generated previously by still use the most recent source images.

Question 31

Which security issues exist for most publicly available Vagrant boxes?

A) They accept SSH logins from the user vagrant with the password vagrant . They accept SSH logins from the user vagrant with the password .
B) They accept SSH logins from the user vagrant with a publicly available SSH key pair. with a publicly available SSH key pair.
C) The vagrant user can use sudo to obtain root privileges without additional authentication. The vagrant user can use sudo to obtain root privileges without additional authentication.
D) Their whole file system, including configuration files, is writable by any user, including vagrant . Their whole file system, including configuration files, is writable by any user, including
E) They export their file system via NFS with full write permissions without any additional restrictions.

Question 32

Which of the following properties apply to a content delivery network?

A) CDNs require all elements of a web site to be served by the same CDN.
B) CDNs can stream large media files such as movies or music to clients.
C) CDNs are present in multiple locations to serve content close to clients.
D) CDNs serve huge numbers of clients with high bandwidth and low latency.
E) CDNs forward all requests to a backend server and never store content locally.

Question 33

Which of the following Ansible tasks copies the file example.txt to a manage system?

A) - rsync:    src: example.txt    dst: /tmp/example.txt
B) - copy:    dest: /tmp/example.txt
C) - retrieve:
D) - cp:    source: example.txt
E) - transfer:

Question 34

What must be the first line of a plain text user-data configuration containing YAML configuration for cloud-init?

A) cloud-config:
B) --- cloud-config
C) #!/usr/bin/cloud-init
D) [cloud-config]
E) #cloud-config

Question 35

Which Ansible modules can be used to change the contents of a file?

A) lineinfile
B) replace
C) patch
D) insert
E) modify

Question 36

An Ansible variable file contains the following content: myapp: option1: one Which of the following strings can be used to reference the defined variable? .

A) myapp(option1);
B) option1@myapp
C) myapp['option1']
D) myapp.option1
E) myapp{{option1}}

Question 37

A recently installed application writes log data to / opt/app/log/info.log . If Filebeat is already installed and set up for communication with a remote Logstash, what has to be done in order to submit the log data of the new application to Logstash?

A) Add an additional input channel with the option source => "/opt/app/log/info.log" to the Logstash configuration. Add an additional input channel with the option source => "/opt/app/log/info.log" to the Logstash configuration.
B) Configure logrotate to execute filebeat -I /opt/app/log/info.log 0 after each rotation of /opt/app/log/info.log. Configure logrotate to execute filebeat -I /opt/app/log/info.log 0 after each rotation of /opt/app/log/info.log.
C) Add the log file to the path option within the log prospector in the Filebeat configuration and restart Filebeat. Add the log file to the path option within the log prospector in the Filebeat configuration and restart Filebeat.
D) Add a new cron job that invokes filebeat -i /opt/app/log/info.log periodically. Add a new cron job that invokes filebeat -i /opt/app/log/info.log periodically.
E) Replace / opt/app/log/info.log by a symbolic link to / dev/filebeat and restart the new application. Replace / by a symbolic link to / dev/filebeat and restart the new application.

Question 38

Which of the following goals are favored by agile software development methodologies?

A) Self-organization of teams.
B) Central governance and control.
C) Flexibility of processes.
D) Absolute planning adherence.
E) Long-term release and feature management.

Question 39

How does Prometheus gather information about monitored hosts and services?

A) It implements the ICMP and SNMP protocols to ping and query remote services.
B) It opens a webhook where monitored applications have to submit various metrics.
C) It uses HTTP to retrieve JSON encoded metrics from the monitored objects.
D) It queries a relational database for metrics written to the database by monitored applications.
E) It runs scripts on the Prometheus server which perform tests and return various metrics.

Question 40

Which of the following sections must exist in a Packer template?

A) images
B) provisioners
C) builders
D) variables
E) post-processsors

Question 41

Which section of the Prometheus configuration defines which nodes are monitored?

A) scrape_config
B) targets
C) rules
D) listener
E) nodes

Question 42

Consider the following Kubernetes Deployment: With the ReplicaSet: And the Pods: What happens if one of the Pods is terminated with the command kubect1 pod delete ?

A) The remaining Pods are stopped and the Deployment switches to the state Failed . The remaining Pods are stopped and the Deployment switches to the state Failed .
B) The number of replicas in the ReplicaSet is changed to 4.
C) The ReplicaSet immediately starts a new replacement Pod.
D) The remaining Pods are stopped and a new ReplicaSet is started.
E) The Deployment switches to the state Degraded . The Deployment switches to the state Degraded

Question 43

Which of the following functions are provided by the Ansible apt module?

A) Update an installed package to the latest version.
B) Update the list of available packages from configured repositories.
C) Re-compile an installed package from the source code.
D) Add the URL of a new repository to the package manager configuration.
E) Install a dpkg based Linux distribution on an empty target system.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is true about load balancers?

A) Load balancers are a security risk because they obfuscate the origin of connections.
B) Load balancer help to improve the availability and scalability of a service.
C) Load balancers are a single point of failure because they cannot be deployed redundantly.
D) Load balancer require access to private keys in order to be able to forward HTTPS traffic.
E) Load balancers cannot use connection content, such as HTTP cookies, to route traffic.

Question 45

Which sections can exist in a Logstash configuration file?

A) output
B) filter
C) input
D) forward
E) generate

Question 46

The following command is issued on two docker nodes: docker network create --driver bridge isolated_nw Afterwards, one container is started at each node with the parameter --network=isolated_nw . It turns out that the containers can not interact with each other. What must be done in order to allow the containers to interact with each other?

A) Use a host network instead of a bridged network.
B) Add the option --inter-container to the docker network create command. Add the option --inter-container to the docker network create command.
C) Start the containers on the same node.
D) Change the --network parameter of docker create to --network=isolated_nw,nofence . Change the --network parameter of docker create to --network=isolated_nw,nofence .
E) Use an overlay network instead of a bridged network.