Deck 2: Certified NetIQ Identity Manager Administrator

Question 1

When checking in a project to a Version Control Server, you will need to specify a file path to your Subversion server or a URL to the Subversion server. If you specify a URL, which protocols are supported? (Choose 4.)

A) FTP
B) NFS
C) SVN
D) HTTP
E) SFTP
F) HTTPS
G) SVN+SSH

Answer 1

SVN
HTTP
HTTPS
SVN+SSH

Question 2

In which order should you create and start an Active Directory driver?

A) 1) Import the current driver packages
2) Install the driver packages
3) Deploy the driver
4) Configure the driver
5) Start the driver
B) 1) Install the driver packages
2) Import the current driver packages
3) Deploy the driver
4) Configure the driver
5) Start the driver
C) 1) Install the driver packages
2) Import the current driver packages
3) Deploy the driver
4) Start the driver
5) Configure the driver
D) 1) Import the current driver packages
2) Install the driver packages
3) Configure the driver
4) Deploy the driver
5) Start the driver
E) 1) Import the current driver packages
2) Install the driver packages
3) Deploy the driver
4) Start the driver
5) Configure the driver

Answer 2

1) Import the current driver packages
2) Install the driver packages
3) Configure the driver
4) Deploy the driver
5) Start the driver

Question 3

When installing the Active Directory Driver, which options are available when you are selecting the desired form for the placement of new objects? (Choose 2.)

A) Flat
B) Level
C) Parallel
D) Mirrored
E) Structured
F) Bi-directional
G) Single Organizational Unit

Answer 3

Flat
Mirrored

Question 4

To which can you add Named Passwords? (Choose 2.)

A) Server
B) Drivers
C) Driver Sets
D) Applications
E) Identity Vaults

Question 5

When using Designer, which view do you use to import driver sets, drivers, and channels from the file system?

A) The Tasks view
B) The Project view
C) The Outline view
D) The Navigator view
E) The Policy Flow view

Question 6

You have noticed that a server is not listed in the Servers tab on the driver or driver set. Which may resolve this issue?

A) Revert back to an older driver.
B) Revert back to an older driver set.
C) Delete the problem driver and reinstall it.
D) Delete the related driver set and then reinstall it.
E) Disassociate the driver set object and the server and then re-associate them.

Question 7

In an Active Directory environment, which tools enable you to view and manage the associations between drivers and objects? (Choose 2.)

A) Designer
B) Driver Inspector
C) Object Inspector
D) Policy Simulator
E) Active Directory Discovery tool

Question 8

Which correctly shows the precedence of Global Configuration Values (GCVs)?

A) 1) GCVs from the driver set Global Configuration list
2) GCVs from the driver Global Configuration list  
3) GCVs from the driver  
4) GCVs from the driver set  
B) 1) GCVs from the driver set Global Configuration list
2) GCVs from the driver Global Configuration list  
3) GCVs from the driver set  
4) GCVs from the driver
C) 1) GCVs from the driver
2) GCVs from the driver set
3) GCVs from the driver Global Configuration list  
4)GCVs from the driver set Global Configuration list
D) 1) GCVs from the driver
2)GCVs from the driver Global Configuration list
3) GCVs from the driver set  
4)GCVs from the driver set Global Configuration list

Question 9

Which statements are true regarding Global Configuration Values (GCVs)? (Choose 2.)

A) GCVs are variables.
B) GCVs are constant values.
C) GCVs can be changed at runtime.
D) GCVs are accessible to the tree and network.
E) GCVs are globally accessible to the driver and driver set.

Question 10

When installing Active Directory driver packages, you can also install optional features for the Active Directory driver. Which feature should you select if you are using the Identity Reporting Module?

A) Data Collection
B) Account Tracking
C) Default Configuration
D) Password Synchronization
E) Entitlements and Exchange Mailbox Support

Question 11

What type of Identity Manager Event does a Subscriber Trigger Event Job create?

A) sync
B) query
C) modify
D) status
E) trigger
F) triggerless

Question 12

If you map the eDirectory attribute of Login Expiration Time to the Active Directory attribute of accountExpires, when does the account in Active Directory expire?

A) A day later than the time set in eDirectory
B) A day earlier than the time set in eDirectory
C) An hour later than the time set in eDirectory
D) At the same time as the time set in eDirectory
E) An hour earlier than the time set in eDirectory

Question 13

When is the package catalog created?

A) When a package is installed
B) When a driver object is created
C) When a Driver Set object is created
D) When a project is created or imported

Question 14

When you install Active Directory drivers, you must choose an authentication method. Authentication identifies the driver shim to Active Directory and, potentially, to the local machine. Which statements are true regarding the Negotiate authentication method? (Choose 2.)

A) This is the preferred authentication method.
B) This can be installed on a server that is not a member of the domain.
C) This uses Kerberos, NTLM, or a pluggable authentication scheme if one is installed.
D) This is used when the server hosting the driver shim is not a member of the domain.
E) When using this, some provisioning services, such as Exchange mailbox provisioning and password synchronization, are unavailable.

Question 15

Which method can be used to start the process of installing Active Directory driver packages?

A) In the Modeler, right-click the driver set where you want to create the driver; then select New > Driver to display the Driver Configuration Wizard.
B) In the Modeler, right-click the Identity Vault where you want to create the driver; then
C) In the Modeler, right-click the server where you want to create the driver; then
D) In the Modeler, right-click the application where you want to create the driver; then
E) In the Modeler, right-click the package catalog where you want to create the driver; then

Question 16

Which allows you to securely store multiple passwords for a driver?

A) Named Passwords
B) Universal Password
C) Password Policy object
D) Event Auditing Service
E) Password Synchronization

Question 17

Which drivers have Remote Loader capability? (Choose 3.)

A) JDBC
B) LDAP
C) eDirectory
D) Active Directory
E) Entitlement Services

Question 18

Which pre-defined jobs operate at the driver set level? (Choose 2.)

A) Driver Health
B) Schedule Driver
C) Subscriber Channel Trigger
D) Random Password Generator
E) Password Expiration Notification

Question 19

When you start Designer for the first time or start Designer without a project listed, which should you first do?

A) Make sure that the Debug perspective is selected.
B) Make sure that the Plug-in perspective is selected.
C) Make sure that the Designer perspective is selected.
D) Make sure that the Java/Java Browsing perspective is selected.
E) Make sure that the Java Type Hierarchy perspective is selected.

Question 20

Which statement is true regarding packages?

A) You can downgrade any package that has been upgraded.
B) You can delete packages from the package catalog at anytime.
C) You can only upgrade packages that have been added to drivers.
D) Before you can import packages into the package catalog, you must install them.

Question 21

The User Application Security Model uses domains to create sets of configurations and permissions that can be assigned to different user types. Under the Provisioning domain, which permission allows the user to retract selected provisioning requests when they are in progress?

A) Retract PRD
B) Initiate PRD
C) Configure Delegate
D) View Running PRD
E) Configure Availability

Question 22

Which policy primarily handles the conversion of data formats from data that the Metadirectory engine provides to data that the application shim expects?

A) Creation policy
B) Matching policy
C) Placement policy
D) Input Transformation policy
E) Event Transformation policy
F) Output Transformation policy

Question 23

Which System Role allows members to create, remove, or modify SoD constraints?

A) Role Auditor
B) Role Manager  
C) Security Officer
D) Provisioning Administrator
E) User Application Administrator

Question 24

What are benefits of using Policy Builder? (Choose 2.)

A) It is built on open standards.
B) It enforces password complexity.
C) It is a GUI with command line capabilities.
D) It minimizes the need for XLST stylesheets.
E) It provides a graphical interface to help data cleansing.
F) It provides a graphical interface for rapid development of policies.

Question 25

What is a purpose of the DAL (Directory Abstraction Layer)?

A) To process work flows
B) To grant/revoke entitlements
C) To store entities attribute data for use in work flows
D) To provide a customized view of objects and their attributes that are stored in the Identity Vault

Question 26

When an XML document has an input tag type, which are supported inputs? (Choose 4.)

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
F)
G)

Question 27

When creating an argument within a rule, which is an example of a noun token?

A) Map
B) Join
C) Class Name
D) Lowercase
E) Escape Source DN

Question 28

Using iManager, what do you need to select to allow you to see the Filter icons so that you can edit filters?

A) The Driver
B) The Driver Set
C) The Application
D) The Identity Vault

Question 29

Which User Application configuration object contains Provisioning Request Definitions?

A) AppDefs
B) ServiceDefs
C) RequestDefs
D) ResourceDefs
E) WorkFlowDefs

Question 30

The Roles hierarchy supports three levels. Which represents the highest role level?

A) Kaiser Role
B) Business Role
C) Resource Role
D) Technical Role
E) Workflow Role

Question 31

Which Policy Sets are applied only during an add event?

A) Matching, Create, and Placement
B) Input Transformation, Matching, and Create
C) Matching, Create, and Schema Transformation
D) Input Transformation, Schema Transformation, and Command Transformation

Question 32

The Requests & Approvals tab in the Identity Manager user application includes a group of actions called My Settings. The My Settings actions give you the ability to view your proxy and delegate assignments. What is the difference between a proxy and a delegate?

A) A delegate assignment is independent of process requests.
B) A delegate assignment applies to a particular type of request.
C) A delegate assignment can only be given to a Team Manager.
D) A Provisioning Manager can only define delegate assignments
E) A delegate assignment can only be given to a Provisioning Manager.

Question 33

Which options might you find in a Role Membership? (Choose 2.)

A) End Date
B) Start Date
C) Proxy User
D) Workflow Status
E) Separation of Duties

Question 34

Which statements about filters are true? (Choose 2.)

A) You cannot export a filter from a driver.
B) You can configure a filter policy for a driver set.
C) You can add a class or attribute to a filter policy.
D) There are separate filter policies for the Publisher and the Subscriber channels.
E) The same filter policy is used for both the Publisher and the Subscriber channels.

Question 35

Which aspects of the User Application can be controlled by customizing the themes in the User Application?

A) Modifying the HTML layouts for individual portlets.
B) Assigning different themes to different users upon login to the User Application.
C) Changing the colors and logos used by the User Application pages, headers, footers and tabs.
D) Restricting the pages and tabs that are available to a particular user upon login to the User Application.

Question 36

Which types of tokens are in the Argument Builder? (Choose 2.)

A) Verb
B) Noun
C) Action
D) Change
E) Attribute
F) Placement
G) Replacement

Question 37

Which entitlement agent is ideal for simple automation?

A) Workflow
B) DIRXML-EntitlementRef
C) Role-Based Entitlement
D) Roles-Based Provisioning Module

Question 38

Which allows you to delete, activate, inactivate and retire existing provisioning request definitions?

A) User Application Driver
B) User Application Portlets
C) Workflow Administration plug-in
D) Provisioning Request Configuration plug-in

Question 39

Which statement is true regarding role relationships?

A) Roles cannot contain other roles.
B) Mid-level roles can contain lower-level and higher-level roles.
C) Bottom-level roles can be contained by higher-level roles and other bottom-level roles.
D) Top-level roles can contain lower-level roles, but they cannot be contained by other roles.

Question 40

When installing the Active Directory Driver, which options can you choose when selecting the desired form for the placement of new objects? (Choose 2.)

A) Flat
B) Level
C) Parallel
D) Mirrored
E) Structured
F) Bi-directional
G) Single Organizational Unit

Question 41

For which domains is it not possible to create Domain Managers? (Choose  3.)

A) Role
B) Resource
C) Security
D) Compliance
E) Configuration

Question 42

Which rules need to be followed when adding flow paths to a workflow? (Choose 3.)

A) There can be multiple flow paths out of the Start activity.
B) There can be only one flow path out of the Merge activity.
C) There can be only one flow path out of the Branch activity.
D) There can be only one flow path out of the Entitlement activity.
E) There can be between one and five flow paths out of the Approval activity.

Question 43

Which statements are true regarding workflows? (Choose 3.)

A) An activity represents a task.
B) A process consists of activities and flow paths.
C) A flow path ties activities in a workflow together.
D) An activity represents the work to be processed.
E) An activity can have only one incoming and one outgoing flow path.

Question 44

Which defines the Provisioning request categories the user application can display?

A) Driver Filter
B) Role Catalog
C) Package Catalog
D) Global Configuration Values
E) The Directory Abstraction Layer

Question 45

The Integration activity automatically creates an action model for working with a Web service based on which document format?

A) CSV
B) TXT
C) XMI
D) XML
E) WSDL

Question 46

Which of the following can create teams? (Choose 3.)

A) Team Manager
B) Role Administrator
C) Security Administrator
D) Provisioning Manager
E) Resource Administrator
F) Compliance Administrator

Question 47

When adding a control to a form that is being created, Designer adds a control-named Field to the bottom line of the form. Where is the name that is entered into this field used? (Choose 3.)

A) The ECMA expression builder dialog box
B) The Create Resource Wizard's General tab
C) The Workflow tab's Data Item Mapping dialog box
D) In the Role Mapping Administration Authorization panel
E) An internal XML reference in the provisioning request definition file

Question 48

Which domain defines rights to launch attestation requests and view the status of attestation requests?

A) Role Domain
B) Resource Domain
C) Compliance Domain
D) Provisioning Domain
E) Configuration Domain

Question 49

In the Navigation Access Permissions page, who has access to the administration tab? (Choose 2.)

A) Security Administrator
B) Resource Administrator
C) Compliance Administrator
D) Provisioning Administrator
E) Configuration Administrator

Question 50

Which statement about entitlements is true?

A) Entitlements are used as the association key for the user objects.
B) eDirectory schema is extended the first time Entitlements are invoked.
C) The DirXML-EntitlementRef attribute keeps track of the entitlements that a user has been granted or revoked.
D) Entitlements that grant or revoke Group Membership will always take precedence over policies that grant or revoke Group Memberships.

Question 51

Which do you use to create and deploy provisioning requests to the User Application driver?

A) Filter Editor
B) Policy Editor
C) User Application Editor
D) Directory Abstraction Layer Editor
E) Provisioning Request Definition Editor

Question 52

Which users have access to the team configuration page? (Choose 2.)

A) Role Manager
B) Team Manager
C) Security Administrator
D) Resource Manager
E) Provisioning Manager

Question 53

At runtime, which performs all of the User Application's LDAP queries against the Identity Vault?

A) The publisher filter
B) The Role Catalogue
C) The Abstraction Layer Protocol
D) User Application Administration
E) The Directory Abstraction Layer

Question 54

Which statement is true when creating your own Entitlements?

A) You create Entitlements using iMonitor.
B) You can only create Entitlements on the Publisher channel.
C) You must add the Entitlements to a driver set for them to work.
D) You must add a policy to the driver for the Entitlements to work.

Question 55

Which rules need to be followed when adding activities to a workflow? (Choose 3.)

A) A workflow cannot contain a condition activity.
B) Each Approval activity must have a Condition activity.
C) Each Branch activity must have a corresponding Merge activity.
D) Each workflow must have at least one Entitlement or Entity activity.
E) Each workflow must have only one Start activity and only one Finish activity.

Question 56

In which of the following is the directory abstraction layer editor plug-in available?

A) iMonitor
B) Designer
C) iManager
D) Role Mapping Administrator
E) User Application Administrator

Question 57

Which are directory objects that encapsulate the business rules for granting or revoking a corporate resource or role, and binding the corporate resource or role to a workflow?

A) Role Mapping Definitions
B) Provisioning Request Definitions
C) Data Abstraction Layer Definitions
D) Global Configuration Values Definitions

Question 58

In the Standard SoD Constraint Exception Approval Workflow Activity, which Activity Name determines whether the approval is a quorum condition?

A) Localize SoD Name
B) Approve SoD Conflict
C) Check for Processing Type
D) Approve SoD Conflict (Serial)
E) Approve SoD Conflict (Quorum)

Question 59

Which statement is true regarding the Novell Identity Manager Role Mapping Administrator?

A) If you have both Role Manager and Resource Manager roles, you can create, edit, and delete mappings.
B) If you have both Role Manager and Resource Administrator roles, you can create, edit, and delete mappings.
C) If you have both Role Administrator and Resource Manager roles, you can create, edit, and delete mappings.
D) If you have both Role Administrator and Resource Administrator roles, you can create, edit, and delete mappings.

Question 60

Which is used to define Directory Abstraction Layer definitions?

A) Filter Editor
B) Policy Editor
C) Integration Activity Editor
D) Directory Abstraction Layer Editor
E) Provisioning Request Definition Editor

Question 61

Which installation mode is supported by the integrated installer?

A) Silent mode
B) Non-root mode
C) Console mode
D) AutoYaST mode
E) Standalone mode

Question 62

Which XPATH operator is used to select all descendent nodes at any depth below the current stated node?

A) *
B) |
C) @
D) &
E) //

Question 63

Using regular expressions, which matches 'a' or 'b'?

A) "a\b"
B) "a.b"
C) "a*b"
D) "a|b"
E) "a:b"

Question 64

What does a Driver object contain? (Choose 2.)

A) Packages
B) Driver Set
C) Policy Objects
D) Application driver shim
E) Subscriber and Publisher objects

Question 65

When using Designer, a perspective is a collection of related views and editors. Which perspective should be open the first time you run the application?

A) Debug perspective
B) Designer perspective
C) Java/Java Browsing perspective
D) Java Type Hierarchy perspective
E) Plug-in Development perspective

Question 66

Using regular expressions, which phone number should the following match? .
*[89]00.*[0-9]{3}.*[0-9]{4}

A) 800-123-4567
B) 901-123-4567
C) 701-123-4567
D) 808-123-4567
E) 809-123-4567

Question 67

Within the Role Mapping Administrator, which displays the roles that you are authorized to manage?

A) Systems list
B) Mappings list
C) Authorization list
D) Identity Vault Roles list

Question 68

Which view do you use to access Policy Simulator? (Choose 2.)

A) The Tasks view
B) The Outline view
C) The Project view
D) The Navigator view
E) The Policy Flow view

Question 69

What version of the W3C XPATH Recommendation does Identity Manager use?

A) 1.0
B) 1.1
C) 1.5
D) 2.0
E) 2.1
F) 3.5

Question 70

Identity Manager uses a MetaDirectory Engine to process Identity Vault data and events. What component assures changes in the Identity Vault are not lost if a connected system goes offline?

A) Partition
B) Obit flag
C) Change Log
D) Event Cache

Question 71

Which task within Novell iManager allows administrators to view all objects that are associated with a particular Novell IDM driver?

A) Object Inspector
B) Driver Inspector
C) DriverSet Inspector
D) Driver Cache Inspector

Question 72

If there is a name conflict between different variable sources in an XPATH statement, what is the order of precedence?

A) Local (policy scope), Global, Local (driver scope)
B) Global, Local (driver scope), Local (policy scope)
C) Local (driver scope), Local (policy scope), Global
D) Global, Local (policy scope), Local (driver scope)
E) Local (policy scope), Local (driver scope), and global

Question 73

Which application is used to map authorizations to Identity Vault Roles?

A) iFilter
B) iManager
C) Designer
D) User Applications
E) Role Mapping Administrator

Question 74

Using regular expressions, which will the following expression match? (Choose 2.) of*

A) of
B) off
C) often
D) offset
E) offers

Question 75

When data changes in the Identity Vault or a connected application, which processes the changes?

A) Drivers
B) Remote Loader
C) Identity Vault
D) Metadirectory Engine
E) Connected application

Question 76

Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)

A) When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a notification.
B) When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a command.
C) When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a command.
D) When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a notification.
E) Events and commands are handled the same way within an IDM 4 environment.

Question 77

What role does NMAS play in synchronizing passwords in an Identity Manager solution?

A) NMAS controls the flow of synchronizing passwords within Identity Vault.
B) NMAS controls the flow of password synchronization in a connected system, based on NMAS driver settings.
C) NMAS prevents legacy utilities that are not Universal Password-enabled from updating an NDS password directly.
D) NMAS controls the flow of password synchronization, and prevents legacy utilities that are not Universal Password-enabled from updating a password directly.
E) NMAS controls the flow of password synchronization in a connected system, and prevents legacy utilities that are not Universal Password-enabled from updating an NDS password directly.

Question 78

Which are advantages of using NDS password to synchronize passwords between two Identity Vaults? (Choose 2.)

A) Simple configuration.
B) Universal and Distribution password updates
C) E-mail notifications for password synchronization failures
D) Enforcement of the basic password restrictions you can set for NDS Password
E) Password reset on the connected Identity Vault if the passwords don't comply with NMAS password policy

Question 79

Which statement is true?

A) When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Publisher channel to a driver shim.
B) When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
C) When an event occurs in a connected system, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
D) When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, a driver shim creates an XML document that describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
E) When an event occurs in a connected system, a Driver Shim creates an XML document that describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.

Question 80

Which are some best practices for using version control with Designer? (Choose 2.)

A) Use the Tortoise Subversion client.
B) Use the Subversion command line when possible.
C) Enable Subclipse before using version control with Designer.
D) Assign one person to deploy a project to a production environment.
E) Assign one team member to a policy rather than having multiple team members work on one policy.