Deck 1: Analgesics

Question 1

Which of the following pain medicine contains butalbital and caffeine?

A) Ultram
B) Fioricet
C) Vicodin
D) Darvocet

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Aspirin is indicated for all the following EXCEPT:

A) Mild pain
B) Stroke prevention
C) Stent implantation
D) Postsurgical pain

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is associated with Reye's syndrome when used in children with viral infections?

A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen
C) Ibuprofen
D) Indomethacin

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Diclofenac is available in all the following dosage forms EXCEPT:

A) Topical gel
B) Transdermal patch
C) Ophthalmic solution
D) Suppositories

Question 5

Ibuprofen is used in pediatrics to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Actinic keratosis
C) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D) Patent ductus arteriosus

Question 6

Which of the following adverse events increase in the elderly when using NSAIDs?

A) Asthma
B) Thrombosis
C) GI ulcers
D) Sedation

Question 7

All of the following drugs increase GI bleeding risk with NSAIDs EXCEPT?

A) Warfarin
B) Heparin
C) Corticosteroids
D) Ace-inhibitors

Question 8

Which of the following classes of medications can reduce GI ulcers in high-risk patients?

A) Subsalicylates
B) Histamine-2 antagonists
C) Antacids
D) Alpha-1 antagonists

Question 9

Acetaminophen is available in all the following formulations EXCEPT:

A) Chewable tablets
B) Suppositories
C) Elixir
D) Ophthalmic solution

Question 10

Which pregnancy category is buprenorphine?

A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category X

Question 11

Which of the following products is a receptor mu agonist?

A) Acetaminophen
B) Codeine
C) Aspirin
D) Butalbital

Question 12

Which of the following agents is approved for tension headaches?

A) Fioricet
B) Ultram
C) Duragesic
D) Nucynta

Question 13

Which of the following classes of medication may increase the risk of seizures in combination with tramadol?

A) Benzodiazepines
B) COX-2 inhibitors
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Question 14

Which of the following is the maximum daily dose of tramadol in patients with normal renal and hepatic function?

A) 50 mg
B) 100 mg
C) 400 mg
D) 800 mg

Question 15

Which of the following effects is a result of the drug interaction between fentanyl and antipsychotic agents?

A) Increased analgesic effects
B) Enhanced hypotensive effects
C) Serotonin syndrome
D) Increased sedation

Question 16

Which of the following is a correct counseling point for the fentanyl transdermal patches?

A) They must be cut to size.
B) They should be placed on the same painful area each time.
C) Fever can decrease absorption.
D) They should be worn for 72 hours before replacing.

Question 17

Which of the following is true regarding the extended release formulation of oxycodone?

A) It has a maximum daily dose of 200 mg.
B) It should be dosed every 12 hours.
C) It can be crushed if patient cannot swallow the tablets.
D) It is a controlled substance schedule III.

Question 18

Duragesic use should be avoided in which of the following patients?

A) Narcotic naïve postoperative patient
B) Cancer patient on short-acting morphine
C) Patient with a peg tube receiving liquid morphine
D) Obese patient on short-acting oxycodone

Question 19

Which of the following is true regarding Tylenol #3?

A) It should not be used in children.
B) CYP2D6 inhibitors may decrease the efficacy.
C) Constipation is uncommon.
D) As a schedule III controlled substance, it cannot be refilled.

Question 20

Which of the following is true regarding Percocet?

A) It is indicated for mild pain.
B) It contains oxycodone and ibuprofen.
C) It is a schedule III controlled substance.
D) It commonly causes constipation.

Question 21

Celecoxib use is contraindicated in patients with which of the following?

A) Sulfa allergy
B) Alcohol use
C) History of GI bleeding
D) History of thrombosis

Question 22

Which of the following is an appropriate dose of aspirin for pain in an adult?

A) 325 mg
B) 80 mg
C) 4 g
D) 160 mg

Question 23

Which of the following statements regarding hydrocodone is FALSE?

A) Available in extended release capsules
B) Requires renal dose adjustment
C) Class III controlled substance
D) Requires hepatic dose adjustment

Question 24

Aspirin will inhibit platelet function and should be stopped how long before surgery?

A) 1 day
B) 3 days
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

Question 25

Which of the following is the brand name for diclofenac?

A) Motrin
B) Voltaren
C) Lodine
D) Toradol

Question 26

Which of the following is the appropriate dose of hydromorphone IV for a pediatric patient weighing less than 50 kg?

A) 0.03 mg/kg per dose every 4 hours as needed
B) 1-4 mg per dose every 3-4 hours as needed
C) 0.8-2 mg per dose every 3-4 hours as needed
D) 0.015 mg/kg per dose every 3-4 hours as needed

Question 27

NSAIDs like ibuprofen can decrease the efficacy of which of the following?

A) Corticosteroids
B) Warfarin
C) Ace-inhibitors
D) Digoxin

Question 28

Which of the following is false regarding NSAIDs?

A) The use may increase the risk of thrombosis.
B) The use may worsen congestive heart failure.
C) The use may cause GI ulcers.
D) The use is contraindicated in pregnancy.

Question 29

Which NSAID is used as an ophthalmic after cataract surgery?

A) Ibuprofen
B) Diclofenac
C) Nabumetone
D) Meloxicam

Question 30

Which of the following is FALSE about methadone?

A) It can cause QT prolongation.
B) It can cause respiratory depression.
C) For severe pain, it should be dosed every 8-12 hours.
D) For addiction, it should be dosed every 4-6 hours.

Question 31

Which of the following formulations are indicated to use for patent ductus arteriosus?

A) Advil infant drops
B) NeoProfen injection
C) Calderol injection
D) Nuprin

Question 32

Why should ketorolac IV use be limited to 5 days?

A) Prolonged use may lead to renal toxicity.
B) Prolonged use may lead to liver toxicity.
C) Prolonged use may increase blood pressure.
D) Prolonged use may increase cardiovascular risk.

Question 33

Ketorolac is available in all of the following formulations EXCEPT:

A) Tablet
B) Injection
C) Nasal spray
D) Oral liquid

Question 34

Which of the following is a normal adult dose of meloxicam?

A) 7.5 mg daily
B) 20 mg daily
C) 50 mg daily
D) 100 mg daily

Question 35

What is the equivalent dose of morphine 5 mg IV?

A) Morphine IR tab 5 mg po
B) Morphine IR tab 10 mg po
C) Morphine IR tab 15 mg po
D) Morphine IR tab 50 mg po