Deck 17: Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Question 1

Strategies for reducing STDs are controversial primarily because

A) some people deny that the pathogens are spread sexually.
B) scientists disagree about the way to prevent them.
C) of moral differences within society about the nature and purpose of sexuality.
D) most people cannot take responsibility for their sexual behavior.
E) All of the above

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following statements about the AIDS epidemic and the earlier syphilis epidemic is false?

A) They both spread from the continent of origin to other continents.
B) People with both diseases were stigmatized.
C) They both spurred public health campaigns.
D) Both were initially associated with homosexuality.
E) Neither had effective treatments at first.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following statements about STDs is false?

A) STDs were once called venereal diseases after Venus, the Roman goddess of love.
B) In earlier centuries, people were thought to have brought STDs on themselves by engaging in sinful behavior.
C) The original source of syphilis was in America.
D) The epidemic of syphilis was spread by the Europeans who colonized America.
E) AIDS and syphilis are similar in that both are caused by bacteria.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

In 1918, 1 in _______ Americans was infected with syphilis.

A) 2
B) 12
C) 22
D) 32
E) 42

Question 5

Which of the following statements about STDs in the United States is true?

A) Nineteen million new infections occur every year.
B) The U.S. has higher rates of curable STDs than other developing countries do.
C) The highest rates of STDs are among people aged 25‒40.
D) Both a and b
E) All of the above

Question 6

An STD's incidence refers to _______; its prevalence refers to _______.

A) the number of people currently infected; the number of new cases per year
B) the number of new cases per year; the number of people currently infected
C) the number of new cases per year; the number of living people who have ever been infected
D) the number of living people who have ever been infected; the number of people currently infected
E) the number of living people who have ever been infected; the number of new cases per year.

Question 7

Which of the following probabilities is the highest?

A) The chance that a white male has HIV.
B) The chance that a white male has gonorrhea.
C) The chance that an African-American man has HIV.
D) The chance that an African-American woman has HIV.
E) The chance that an African-American woman has gonorrhea.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about pubic lice is false?

A) They are responsible for the spread of dangerous blood-borne diseases.
B) They cause itching.
C) They cause scratching.
D) They can spread to other people.
E) They can spread to other parts of the body.

Question 9

Pubic lice produce _______, which are glued onto the base of hairs.

A) nodules
B) nits
C) gnats
D) scabies
E) larvae

Question 10

The symptom of pubic lice is

A) nausea.
B) urethral discharge.
C) itching.
D) a chancre.
E) loss of appetite.

Question 11

Which of the following infections is not caused by an insect or mite?

A) Scabies
B) Pubic lice
C) Head lice
D) Genital warts
E) All of the above are caused by insects or mites.

Question 12

_______ is an infestation of parasitic mites that dig tunnels within layers of skin and lay eggs.

A) Trichomoniasis
B) Pubic lice
C) Scabies
D) Herpes
E) Genital warts

Question 13

A woman notices a bad smelling discharge in her vagina, but her husband has no symptoms. Her symptoms are most likely caused by

A) genital herpes.
B) gonorrhea.
C) syphilis.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) scabies.

Question 14

Trichomoniasis can be cured with a single dose of

A) metronidazole.
B) penicillin.
C) doxycycline.
D) acyclovir.
E) aspirin.

Question 15

Which of the following statements about bacterial STDs is false?

A) They can be fatal.
B) They can impair fertility.
C) They can facilitate HIV infection.
D) They cannot be treated with antiviral drugs.
E) They cannot be treated with antibiotic drugs.

Question 16

In the _______ stage of syphilis, a genital sore is always present, exuding fluids and huge numbers of spirochetes.

A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c

Question 17

During the _______ phase of syphilis, an infected person is no longer infectious to sex partners.

A) rash
B) primary
C) tertiary
D) latent
E) blister

Question 18

Tertiary syphilis

A) eventually develops in most people with syphilis.
B) is associated with organ damage.
C) eventually develops in a minority of people with syphilis.
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c

Question 19

The first sign of infection with syphilis is

A) a chancre.
B) urethral discharge.
C) pus in urine.
D) severe itching.
E) a rash on the hands and feet.

Question 20

Syphilis can be cured with

A) HAART.
B) RID.
C) Flagyl.
D) penicillin.
E) metronidazole.

Question 21

The main U.S. outbreaks of syphilis occur in

A) the south, among heterosexual African-Americans.
B) large cities, among gay men.
C) prisons.
D) Both a and c
E) All of the above

Question 22

Most cases of syphilis in the United States today occur in

A) Desert Storm vets.
B) southern African-Americans.
C) college students in the northeast.
D) evangelical Christians.
E) illegal immigrants.

Question 23

Today, about 13% of all new syphilis cases occur in

A) New York.
B) Los Angeles.
C) San Francisco.
D) prisons.
E) colleges.

Question 24

The Tuskegee syphilis study has been a symbol of unethical research because the researchers

A) injected African-American men with the disease.
B) exposed African-American men to infected prostitutes in order to infect them.
C) failed to treat infected African-American men even after effective treatments were available.
D) encouraged infected African-American men to have unprotected sex with their partners.
E) failed to tell infected African-American men that they had syphilis.

Question 25

The Tuskegee study recruited black farmers from Alabama who had

A) gonorrhea.
B) vaginismus.
C) herpes.
D) AIDS.
E) syphilis.

Question 26

In 1997, survivors of the Tuskegee syphilis study received _______ from President Clinton.

A) financial compensation
B) a pardon
C) medals
D) a promise of free treatment
E) an apology

Question 27

Gonorrhea symptoms develop within _______ of infection.

A) 1-2 days
B) 2-10 days
C) 1-2 months
D) 2-10 months
E) 1 year

Question 28

Sarah had sex with a man she met at a bar a week ago. Sarah is now experiencing a yellow discharge from her vagina and bleeding during coitus. Sarah may have contracted

A) chlamydia.
B) gonorrhea.
C) genital warts.
D) herpes.
E) syphilis.

Question 29

Gonorrhea symptoms include _______ in women and _______ in men.

A) yellow or bloody vaginal discharge; painful urination and discharge of pus from the penis
B) painful urination; chancres on the penis
C) urethral pus; yellow or bloody discharge from the penis
D) chancres on the vulva; painful urination
E) painful urination; no symptoms

Question 30

Pelvic inflammatory disease is associated with all of the following except

A) gonorrhea.
B) rash.
C) abdominal cramps.
D) vaginal bleeding.
E) vomiting.

Question 31

_______ may cause scarring of the oviducts.

A) Herpes
B) AIDS
C) Genital warts
D) Scabies
E) Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 32

Treatments of which of the following STDs have been most plagued by drug resistance?

A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) Gonorrhea
D) Bacterial vaginosis
E) Trichomoniasis

Question 33

Most commonly, women with chlamydia experience

A) no symptoms.
B) urethral discharge.
C) epididymitis.
D) burning pain during urination.
E) Both a and b

Question 34

About _______% of cases of PID are probably caused by chlamydia.

A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 70
E) 90

Question 35

Approximately _______% of women infected with chlamydia are asymptomatic.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) 90

Question 36

Approximately _______% of men infected with chlamydia are asymptomatic.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) 90

Question 37

The CDC recommends that all sexually active women under the age of 25 years be tested for chlamydia

A) prior to getting pregnant.
B) when they become sexually active.
C) annually.
D) every 3 months.
E) every 6 months.

Question 38

_______ increases the chance of developing vaginosis.

A) Douching
B) Using an IUD
C) Cunnilingus
D) Using tampons
E) Using progestin-only contraceptive pills

Question 39

Cystitis occurs when urethritis spreads to the

A) testes.
B) prostate.
C) penis.
D) rectum.
E) bladder.

Question 40

Which of the following statement about viral STDs is true?

A) They can be treated with antibiotics.
B) Many are self-limiting because they trigger an immune response in the infected person.
C) A number of drugs are available that fight the virus but do not provide a cure.
D) Both b and c
E) All of the above

Question 41

Herpes simplex 1 and 2 are infections caused by

A) insects.
B) protozoans.
C) bacteria.
D) viruses.
E) chancres.

Question 42

The primary difference between HSV-1 and HSV-2 is that

A) one is curable and the other is treatable but not curable.
B) one can be life threatening, but the other is mild.
C) one is most commonly transmitted orally and the other genitally.
D) Both b and c
E) All of the above

Question 43

Compared with the initial genital herpes outbreak, later outbreaks

A) tend to be milder.
B) tend to be more severe.
C) are associated with more serious symptoms.
D) tend to spread more widely to other areas of the body.
E) Both b and d

Question 44

In recurrent herpes outbreaks,

A) viral particles migrate to the terminals of the sensory nerve fibers until they are attacked by the immune system, causing an outbreak.
B) viral particles migrate to nerve cell bodies near the spinal cord, where they are protected from the immune system until they replicate and return to the infection site.
C) viral particles hide from the immune system near the infection site until they replicate, causing an outbreak.
D) viral particles migrate to nerve cell bodies near the spinal cord, where they are attacked by the immune system, causing an outbreak.
E) viral particles mutate between outbreaks and therefore are protected from an immune response.

Question 45

In most cases of HSV-1, _______; in most cases of HSV-2, _______.

A) carriers do not know they are infected; outbreaks cease after the first year
B) outbreaks cease after the first year; carriers do not know they are infected
C) outbreaks are severe and persistent; carriers do not know they are infected
D) carriers do not know they are infected; later outbreaks are more severe than the first one
E) outbreaks cease after the first year; later outbreaks are more severe than the first one

Question 46

Effective treatments for genital herpes

A) can usually eliminate the virus.
B) typically reduce the recurrence of outbreaks.
C) typically reduce the chance of infecting a partner.
D) Both b and c
E) All of the above

Question 47

In America, among sexually active people aged 14‒49, _______; most infected people _______ they are infected.

A) most are infected with genital herpes; do not realize
B) most are not infected with genital herpes; know
C) most are infected with genital herpes; know
D) the proportion of infected individuals is increasing and will soon become more than half; do not realize
E) most are not infected with genital herpes; do not realize

Question 48

Genital warts

A) are caused by the strain of HPV most likely to cause cervical cancer.
B) are caused by the strain of HPV unlikely to cause cervical cancer.
C) are precancerous tumors.
D) are often painful.
E) Both a and c

Question 49

Visible genital warts are most often caused by HPV types _______ or _______.

A) 6; 11
B) 6; 18
C) 8; 11
D) 8; 18
E) 8; 21

Question 50

HPV types 16 and 18 promote the development of _______ cancer.

A) breast
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) uterine
E) bone

Question 51

Genital warts can cause _______ cancer.

A) cervical
B) penile
C) anal
D) Both a and b
E) All of the above

Question 52

The vaccination against HPV, Gardasil, likely helps protect against all of the following except

A) genital warts.
B) penile cancer.
C) cervical cancer.
D) oral cancer.
E) HIV.

Question 53

Hepatitis viruses attack the

A) heart.
B) brain.
C) liver.
D) spleen.
E) urethra.

Question 54

A symptom of hepatitis B is _______, or yellowing of the skin.

A) hypospadias
B) nausea
C) jaundice
D) fever
E) cryptorchidism

Question 55

It is most likely that HIV first infected humans through

A) a rare sexual encounter between a chimpanzee and a human.
B) a hunter exposed to a chimpanzee's blood.
C) a mutation in a human from a closely related virus.
D) airborne transmission from a monkey or chimpanzee to a human.
E) Either c or d

Question 56

AIDS is caused by

A) HPV.
B) HIV.
C) HSV.
D) MRSA.
E) mycoplasma.

Question 57

HIV risk is growing in the United States among

A) gay and bisexual men.
B) African-Americans of both sexes.
C) African-American women.
D) African-American gay and bisexual men.
E) women of all races.

Question 58

HIV is defined as a retrovirus because

A) it is very old.
B) it has evolved very little throughout history.
C) its RNA is transcribed into DNA.
D) its DNA is transcribed into RNA.
E) it contains very little genetic information.

Question 59

The sexual behaviors that carry the greatest risk for contracting HIV are unprotected _______ and _______.

A) coitus; anal sex
B) coitus; fellatio
C) coitus; cunnilingus
D) fellatio; cunnilingus
E) anal sex; cunnilingus

Question 60

Which of the following is not a partial explanation of the high rate of AIDS in sub-Saharan Africa?

A) Low rate of condom use
B) High rate of male-male anal sex
C) Widespread migration of workers
D) High rates of untreated STDs
E) Low prevalence of male circumcision

Question 61

HIV viral DNA is inserted into the DNA of a host cell by the enzyme

A) lipase.
B) protease.
C) integrase.
D) 5α-reductase.
E) aromatase.

Question 62

Which of the following is the correct order of risk, from the practice most likely to spread HIV to the practice least likely to spread HIV (assuming that no condom is used)?

A) Receptive anal sex, vaginal sex (risk to the woman), vaginal sex (risk to the man), fellatio (the oral role)
B) Receptive anal sex, vaginal sex (risk to the man), vaginal sex (risk to the woman), fellatio (oral role)
C) Fellatio (oral role), penetrative anal sex, vaginal sex (risk to the woman), vaginal sex (risk to the man)
D) Penetrative anal sex, fellatio (oral role), vaginal sex (risk to the man), vaginal sex (risk to the woman)
E) Vaginal sex (risk to the woman), penetrative anal sex, fellatio (receiving role), vaginal sex (risk to the man)

Question 63

Soon after becoming infected with HIV but before seroconversion has occurred, a person

A) has detectable levels of virus in the blood.
B) can infect others.
C) has detectable antibodies to HIV.
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c

Question 64

HAART is an acronym for medication provided to people infected with

A) HIV.
B) HPV.
C) herpes.
D) gonorrhea.
E) genital warts.

Question 65

HIV is believed to have evolved from a virus that originated in

A) Asia.
B) America.
C) Europe.
D) India.
E) Africa.

Question 66

Treatment of AIDS with _______ prevents the HIV virus from attaching to the host cell's outer membrane.

A) integrase inhibitors
B) entry inhibitors
C) protease inhibitors
D) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) sildenafil

Question 67

Treatment of AIDS with _______ blocks the copying of viral RNA into DNA.

A) integrase inhibitors
B) entry inhibitors
C) protease inhibitors
D) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) sildenafil

Question 68

Treatment of AIDS with _______ blocks the cutting of newly synthesized viral proteins into shorter pieces.

A) integrase inhibitors
B) entry inhibitors
C) protease inhibitors
D) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) sildenafil

Question 69

Which of the following is not a limitation of antiretroviral therapy for HIV?

A) It can cause serious side effects.
B) The virus can become resistant to the medication.
C) It is expensive.
D) It can only be used after HIV-symptomatic disease appears.
E) It does not completely eradicate the virus from the body.

Question 70

HIV-infected people are considered to have AIDS when their CD4 counts drop below

A) 200.
B) 400.
C) 600.
D) 800.
E) 1,000.

Question 71

A study by Michael Stein revealed that _______% of people receiving treatment for HIV infection had not divulged their status to all their recent sex partners.

A) 8
B) 17
C) 32
D) 40
E) 64

Question 72

The CDC has taken the position that partner notification for HIV exposure should be

A) mandatory.
B) voluntary.
C) criminal.
D) costly.
E) free.

Question 73

The type of condom that provides the best protection against STDs is

A) made of latex.
B) ribbed.
C) flavored.
D) natural-tissue.
E) made of lamb skin.

Question 74

In comparisons of the histories of syphilis and AIDS, which of the following is false?

A) Both were imported from another continent.
B) Both spread rapidly through the population.
C) In both, initially there was a lack of any effective treatment.
D) Those affected were stigmatized.
E) Both diseases initially affected the poor.

Question 75

Which of the following is not a reportable STD?

A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes
E) HIV/AIDS

Question 76

The estimated prevalence of HIV/AIDS in the United States is approximately

A) 100,000
B) 200,000
C) 500,000
D) 750,000
E) 1,000,000

Question 77

The organisms known as "crabs" that may infest the pubic region are actually a species of

A) protozoan.
B) flea.
C) louse.
D) bacteria.
E) crustacean.

Question 78

A sexually transmitted condition caused by a type of arachnid is

A) scabies.
B) trichomoniasis.
C) molluscum contagiousum.
D) crabs.
E) syphilis.

Question 79

In men, T. vaginalis infection is usually

A) painful.
B) asymptomatic.
C) itchy.
D) mildly symptomatic.
E) irritating.

Question 80

The causative agent in syphilis is a(n)

A) viral particle.
B) virus.
C) insect.
D) prion.
E) spirochete.