Deck 11: Fertility, Pregnancy, and Childbirth

Question 1

Home pregnancy tests work by using _______ to detect the presence of _______ in a woman's urine.

A) antibodies; amniotic fluid
B) hormone receptors; progesterone
C) hormone receptors; antibodies
D) antibodies; sperm
E) antibodies; hCG

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced at

A) fertilization.
B) implantation.
C) the end of the first trimester.
D) the beginning of the second trimester.
E) the start of labor.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following provides definitive clinical evidence of a pregnancy?

A) A positive home pregnancy test
B) Morning sickness
C) A missed menstrual period
D) Detection of one or more embryos with an ultrasound scan
E) All of the above

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The major symptom that first suggests to a woman that she is pregnant is

A) loss of sensation in breasts.
B) increased energy.
C) a missed period.
D) spotting.
E) quickening.

Question 5

Fetal heartbeats can be detected by

A) 1 to 2 days of gestation.
B) 7 to 10 days of gestation.
C) 1 to 2 weeks of gestation.
D) 7 to 9 weeks of gestation.
E) the third trimester.

Question 6

By taking into consideration both the length of time sperm can survive in the female reproductive tract and the length of time an ovum remains viable after ovulation, the "fertile window" of a menstrual cycle includes

A) only the 24 hours after ovulation.
B) only the 24 hours before and the 24 hours after ovulation.
C) about 5 days before and 5 days after ovulation.
D) about 5 days before and 5 days after menstruation.
E) about 5 days before and 1 day after ovulation.

Question 7

Of the many steps that a couple can take to maximize their chances for conceiving, the most important is

A) timing coitus with ovulation.
B) douching.
C) ejaculating frequently.
D) engaging in the woman-on-top position.
E) not exercising.

Question 8

Which of the following does not change around the time of ovulation?

A) The consistency of menstrual blood
B) The amount of LH in the blood
C) The consistency of cervical mucus
D) Basal body temperature
E) The probability of conception

Question 9

Approximately 15% of couples in the United States have difficulty establishing a pregnancy. The causes for infertility are

A) most often due to problems on the woman's side.
B) most often due to problems on the man's side.
C) as equally likely to be due to problems on the man's side as on the woman's side.
D) most often unable to be identified medically.
E) most often due to societal pressure to become parents.

Question 10

The best evidence to suggest that sperm counts in men have been declining over time comes from studies in which researchers

A) collected sperm from men in various cities and compared them to each other.
B) tracked sperm counts in 1000 men every 2 years over the past 10 years.
C) compared sperm counts in men who wear boxers to men who wear briefs.
D) compiled data from many studies of sperm counts that had been published over the past 50 years.
E) used a much more sophisticated method of measuring sperm than in the past.

Question 11

The most likely explanation for lower sperm counts in rural compared to urban areas of the United States is

A) increased exposure to endocrine disruptors and other environmental pollutants in rural areas.
B) increased masturbation in urban areas.
C) increased popularity of hot tubs in rural areas.
D) increased popularity of tight-fitting jeans and horseback riding in rural areas (the "cowboy phenomenon").
E) the combination of increased caffeine consumption and laptop use in urban areas (the "Starbucks phenomenon").

Question 12

Male fertility may decrease with normal aging due to

A) decreased ejaculate volume.
B) decreased concentration of motile sperm.
C) increased damage to sperm DNA.
D) decreased levels of testosterone.
E) All of the above

Question 13

Bicycle shorts, strenuous exercise, and saunas may affect fertility by

A) disrupting menstrual cycles.
B) inhibiting spermatogenesis by decreasing testicular temperatures.
C) inhibiting spermatogenesis by increasing testicular temperatures.
D) blocking the vas deferens.
E) inducing genetic mutations in the gametes.

Question 14

Which of the following can be used to facilitate pregnancy in couples for whom low sperm count or poor quality sperm are the problem?

A) In vitro fertilization
B) Artificial insemination
C) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
D) Insemination with donor sperm
E) All of the above

Question 15

Which of the following infertility treatments would be appropriate for a woman who has been found to be infertile due to extensive scarring in her oviducts?

A) Ovulation induction
B) Artificial insemination
C) In vitro fertilization
D) Hormonal treatment
E) Hysterectomy

Question 16

There are many genetic disorders that can be passed on from parents to children. In order to avoid passing on genetic traits, before a pregnancy has begun parents may select healthy embryos using

A) preimplantation genetic screening.
B) amniocentesis.
C) chorionic villus sampling.
D) artificial insemination.
E) ovulation induction.

Question 17

Which of the following does not cause secondary amenorrhea?

A) Weight loss
B) Athletic training
C) Stress
D) Frequent masturbation
E) Pituitary tumors

Question 18

In blood work run on a woman with fertility problems, hormones measured on day 12 of the menstrual cycle show very low levels of LH, FSH, and estradiol. The most likely reason for this woman's infertility is

A) endometriosis.
B) tubal scarring.
C) immune attack on partner's sperm.
D) failure of implantation.
E) failure to ovulate.

Question 19

The likelihood that an individual woman will give birth to a child with Down syndrome increases with maternal age; however, the vast majority of babies are born to women younger than age 35. As a result, the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology recommends screening for Down syndrome for

A) all pregnant women.
B) only pregnant women over age 35.
C) only pregnant women over age 45.
D) pregnancies in which either the mother or the father is over age 35.
E) pregnancies in which both the mother and the father are over age 35.

Question 20

Gestational surrogacy is most likely to be used if

A) the man has abnormally low sperm counts.
B) sustaining a pregnancy is either impossible or dangerous for the woman.
C) the woman's oviducts are blocked.
D) the woman fails to ovulate.
E) one of the parents is a carrier of a genetic disorder.

Question 21

Approximately _______% of human conceptuses are genetically abnormal, with little or no chance of viability.

A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 50
E) 75

Question 22

A woman takes a pregnancy test the first day after a missed period and it comes out positive; however, she begins to menstruate two weeks later. The most likely explanation is that

A) the woman took the test too early in her pregnancy, making the results unreliable.
B) an embryo implanted briefly but died shortly thereafter.
C) the false positive was due to endometriosis rather than pregnancy.
D) the woman took the test too late in her pregnancy, making the results unreliable.
E) taking the pregnancy test caused her to miscarry and lose the pregnancy.

Question 23

A mother may develop antibodies to Rh factor which can threaten second pregnancies that result from

A) an Rh-positive mother and an Rh-positive father.
B) an Rh-positive mother and an Rh-negative father.
C) an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive father.
D) an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-negative father.
E) exposure of either the mother or the father to a rhesus monkey.

Question 24

Implantation of an embryo at a location other than the uterus

A) can lead to a live birth if the mother is monitored carefully.
B) is safe for the mother, but lethal for the developing fetus.
C) is dangerous for the mother, but safe for the fetus.
D) is dangerous for the mother, and lethal for the developing fetus.
E) will not yield a positive pregnancy test.

Question 25

Low levels of progesterone can contribute to infertility because this hormone is necessary for

A) stimulation of follicle development.
B) stimulation of endometrial development sufficient for embryo implantation.
C) stimulation of the LH surge needed for ovulation.
D) sperm capacitation.
E) spermatogenesis.

Question 26

In a pregnant woman, conception most likely occurred approximately

A) two weeks before the onset of her last menstrual period.
B) at the onset her last menstrual period.
C) two weeks after the onset of her last menstrual period.
D) at the time of her first missed menstrual period.
E) two weeks after the time of her first missed menstrual period.

Question 27

The second trimester begins when

A) the placenta has been established.
B) all major organ systems have been established.
C) quickening has occurred.
D) cervical dilation and effacement have occurred.
E) three months of pregnancy have elapsed.

Question 28

If a woman must have her ovaries removed three months into her pregnancy, the most likely outcome is that the pregnancy will

A) be spontaneously aborted due to the lack of progesterone.
B) proceed normally only if the woman receives daily injections of progesterone throughout the remainder of the pregnancy.
C) proceed normally due to estrogen secretion by the maternal adrenals.
D) proceed normally due to progesterone secretion by the placenta.
E) proceed normally due to hCG secretion by the fetus.

Question 29

Morning sickness during pregnancy can vary from mild nausea to persistent vomiting that can threaten the health of the mother and fetus. Morning sickness may have evolved as a mechanism to

A) keep women from gaining an unhealthy amount of weight during pregnancy.
B) limit the consumption of potentially harmful chemicals in food during early pregnancy.
C) reduce the libido of the woman and her attractiveness to a partner, thereby reducing potentially harmful sexual activity.
D) limit the physical activity of a women.
E) reduce the need for frequent urination.

Question 30

Prenatal care is most effective when begun

A) three months before a woman becomes pregnant.
B) within a week after a woman becomes pregnant.
C) during the first trimester of pregnancy.
D) during the second trimester of pregnancy.
E) three weeks before the due date.

Question 31

Pregnant women require an additional _______ calories/day.

A) 10-20
B) 50-75
C) 100-150
D) 250-300
E) 500-600

Question 32

The recommended weight gain for women who have a normal prepregnancy weight is approximately _______ pounds, of which about _______ pounds are due to the weight of the fetus.

A) 10‒15; 6‒9
B) 15‒25.; 6‒9
C) 25‒35; 6‒9
D) 25‒35; 10‒15
E) 35‒40; 10‒15

Question 33

Which of the following consequences to the baby is not associated with heavy alcohol consumption during pregnancy?

A) Increased likelihood of birth defects
B) Increased likelihood of infant mortality
C) Increased likelihood of cognitive problems
D) Atypical sexual development and ambiguous genitalia
E) Development of facial features that include a flat mid-face, short nose, and short, widely-spaced eye slits

Question 34

Which of the following poses the most risk to a developing fetus?

A) Drinking one caffeinated beverage a day
B) Getting a flu vaccine
C) Having one alcoholic beverage per week
D) Engaging in coitus during early pregnancy
E) Smoking

Question 35

Excess vitamin _______ and _______ can result in fetal malformations.

A) A; D
B) C; calcium
C) E; folate
D) D; calcium
E) A; folate

Question 36

Measurement of a fetus's neck skin fold, called _______, is used to detect Down syndrome.

A) the nuchal translucency test
B) the alpha-fetoprotein test
C) chorionic villus sampling
D) ultrasound
E) amniocentesis

Question 37

Measurement of _______ is used to detect neural tube defects in fetuses.

A) nuchal folds
B) alpha-fetoprotein
C) hCG
D) chromosomes
E) DHT

Question 38

Amniocentesis is a test that screens for congenital disorders and involves sampling amniotic fluid, which contains free-floating fetal cells. The fluid and tissue can then be analyzed to determine risk for

A) genetic disorders only.
B) neural tube defects only.
C) sex-linked chromosomal disorders only.
D) both genetic disorders and neural tube defects.
E) limb malformations.

Question 39

Although chorionic villus sampling contains a higher risk of miscarriage than amniocentesis, many women prefer this alternative because

A) it can provide them with information about the risk of spina bifida, as well as about genetic disorders.
B) it can identify genetic and chromosomal disorders earlier in pregnancy.
C) it is less painful.
D) it can be done at home with a commercially available test kit.
E) it is less invasive.

Question 40

Some couples would prefer that their future child be of a particular sex. Which of the following cannot be used to help determine the sex of an embryo or fetus?

A) Flow cytometry to sort for X- or Y-bearing oocytes
B) Preimplantation genetic screening of embryos created with IVF
C) Ultrasound screening
D) Amniocentesis
E) Chorionic villus sampling

Question 41

Coitus during pregnancy

A) should be avoided after the first trimester.
B) can lead to premature labor during the third trimester.
C) is physically impossible late in pregnancy due to the size of the woman's belly.
D) is not advised for women who have unexplained vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid.
E) All of the above

Question 42

The American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology recommends that otherwise healthy pregnant women

A) engage in high impact aerobic exercise for at least 20 minutes a day, three times a week.
B) regularly engage in moderate exercise like brisk walking and swimming.
C) remain in bed lying on their left side as many hours of the day as possible.
D) avoid all exercise and moderately strenuous activity.
E) require their partners to take over all household responsibilities for the duration of their pregnancies.

Question 43

For the fetus, the third trimester is primarily a time of

A) sexual differentiation.
B) organogenesis.
C) rapid growth.
D) effacement.
E) placental development.

Question 44

Labor consists of several stages, with delivery of the baby being stage

A) one.
B) two.
C) three.
D) four.
E) five.

Question 45

Which of the following is the correct order of events that occur in preparation for and during delivery of a baby?

A) Engagement; dilation; effacement; crowning
B) Engagement; effacement; dilation; crowning
C) Engagement; crowning; effacement; dilation
D) Effacement; dilation; engagement; crowning
E) Dilation; effacement; crowning; engagement

Question 46

Sensory nerves that detect the pressure of the fetal head on the cervix send signals that stimulate the release of oxytocin from the pituitary. As a result,

A) glands in the breast tissue start producing milk to feed the infant.
B) the endometrium of the uterus is stimulated, causing the fetus and the placenta to be released from the uterine wall.
C) the myometrium of the uterus is inhibited, which reduces the pressure on the cervix.
D) contractions of the myometrium are stimulated, which further increases pressure on the cervix.
E) oxytocin acts like a natural opiate to inhibit subsequent transmission of pain signals.

Question 47

After the baby is delivered, it is safe to cut the umbilical cord because

A) the infant will soon receive nourishment from the mother's breast milk.
B) the infant's heart has begun to beat on its own.
C) the infant will start to urinate when it needs to eliminate wastes.
D) the umbilical cord is no longer attached to the placenta.
E) once the infant begins to breathe, it no longer is dependent on its mother for oxygen.

Question 48

The third stage of labor involves

A) rupture of the amniotic membranes.
B) bearing down.
C) delivery of the baby.
D) the onset of lactation.
E delivery of the placenta.

Question 49

About 10% of all deliveries in the United States result in preterm birth. Which of the following is not known to be associated with preterm birth?

A) Teen age pregnancy
B) Tobacco use
C) Carrying multiple fetuses
D) Malnutrition
E) Coitus during the third trimester

Question 50

Which of the following is not true about Cesarean section?

A) Approximately one-third of all babies born in the United States are delivered by C-section.
B) Recovery from C-section is easier and faster than recovery following vaginal delivery.
C) C-section may be used if the fetus is not in a position favorable for vaginal delivery.
D) If a woman has an active infection in the birth canal, a C-section can be performed to avoid infecting the baby.
E) A woman may elect to choose a C-section for nonmedical reasons, such as scheduling or a desire to avoid the pain of childbirth.

Question 51

In cases in which a woman's labor is overdue or is not progressing as rapidly as desired, she may be given a synthetic version of the hormone _______, which normally stimulates uterine contractions.

A) progesterone
B) prolactin
C) oxytocin
D) hCG
E) surfactant

Question 52

Which of the following is uncommon during the postpartum period?

A) Increased stress
B) Sleep disruption
C) Depressive psychosis
D) Periods of sadness and crying
E) Joy and euphoria

Question 53

Postpartum depression is most likely due to

A) a combination of psychosocial and biological factors.
B) psychosocial factors only.
C) biological factors only.
D) a lack of willpower on the part of the mother.
E) poor body image associated with excessive weight gain during pregnancy.

Question 54

The main hormone that promotes the development of lactiferous duct in the breast and subsequent production of breast milk is

A) prolactin.
B) estrogen.
C) progesterone.
D) oxytocin
E) hCG.

Question 55

Stimulation of the nipple leads to the secretion of _______, which triggers the milk-let down reflex, resulting in the contraction of smooth muscle that moves milk into the milk ducts that lead to the nipple.

A) prolactin
B) estrogen
C) progesterone
D) hCG
E) oxytocin

Question 56

_______ is special milk that nourishes newborns.

A) Lactate
B) Colostrum
C) Prolactin
D) Acidophilus
E) Soy

Question 57

Most of the energy in breast milk comes from its high concentration of

A) antibodies.
B) water.
C) protein.
D) fat.
E) vitamins.

Question 58

Which of the following is not an advantage associated with breast-feeding?

A) Reduction of postpartum bleeding and shrinking of the size of the uterus in the mother
B) Improved resistance to infectious illness in the infant
C) Close bonding between mother and infant
D) Less costly than bottle-feeding
E) Process of feeding takes less time

Question 59

Common reasons that women stop breast-feeding include all of the following except

A) nutritional superiority of infant formula to breast milk.
B) inconvenience for working mothers.
C breast discomfort or inflammation.
D) social disapproval of breast-feeding older children.
E) desire to share feeding responsibilities with partner.

Question 60

Oxytocin is thought to play an important role in the development and expression of maternal behavior, as suggested by the observation that maternal behaviors in various animal species can be disrupted by administering oxytocin antagonists. However, maternal behaviors can be seen in non-nursing mothers and also in mothers of adopted children. The best interpretation of these results is that

A) previous studies implicating oxytocin in maternal behavior were incorrect; it plays no role in maternal behavior.
B) oxytocin may contribute to development of maternal behavior, but other mechanisms are likely to be involved.
C) prostaglandin, rather than oxytocin, is the hormone most responsible for the expression of maternal behavior.
D) the biological mechanisms underlying maternal behavior develop during pregnancy and are not dependent upon whether a mother breast-feeds or not.
E) maternal behavior is not biologically determined.

Question 61

Home pregnancy tests work by reacting to the presence of _______ in a woman's urine.

A) progesterone
B) prolactin
C) hCG
D) GnRH
E) estrogen

Question 62

A woman's basal body temperature rises _______ ovulation.

A) several days before
B) the day after
C) the day of
D) the day before
E) during the week after

Question 63

For about 2 days prior to ovulation, a woman's cervical mucus is

A) absent.
B) white and thick.
C) tinged with blood.
D) watery.
E) stretchy like egg white.

Question 64

Based on the most current research findings, should young American men have a concern about their sperm count?

A) Yes, there is good evidence for declining sperm counts in the U.S.
B) No, most American scientists are still skeptical.
C) Yes, decreasing sperm counts in New York men is the national marker, and they have been steadily decreasing for 30 years now.
D) No, sampling errors can account for the apparent sperm count decline.
E) No, because even a few sperm are enough to fertilize an ovum.

Question 65

According to professional guidelines, healthy young women should receive no more than _______ embryo(s) on their first IVF attempt.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

Question 66

Fetal reduction is a

A) procedure that is sometimes necessary in the use of assisted reproductive technologies.
B) polite way to describe any abortion.
C) medical term used to describe women who have undergone multiple previous abortions.
D) medical term to describe a spontaneous abortion in the second trimester.
E) Loss of weight by a malnourished fetus.

Question 67

Which of the following statements about sperm banks is true?

A) The service they provide is relatively inexpensive.
B) They store donor sperm.
C) Donors are often college students.
D) They obtain their stocks through masturbation.
E) All of the above

Question 68

A major cause of infertility related to damage to the female reproductive tract is

A) endocrine disruptors.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) obesity.
D) diabetes.
E) birth defects.

Question 69

Reproductive tourism involves

A) in vitro fertilization while on vacation in a first-world country.
B) tours for infertile couples to various fertility clinics around the world.
C) the use of a surrogate mother from a third-world country.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 70

In Down syndrome, children have an extra copy of chromosome

A) 21.
B) 22.
C) 23.
D) 24.
E) 25.

Question 71

An older man's sperm is slightly more likely to cause a genetic disease in the fetus because

A) the sperm are very old.
B) they have had longer to be exposed to endocrine disruptors.
C) there have been many rounds of DNA replication.
D) the man has more opportunity to become infected.
E) they are more likely to be damaged.

Question 72

The oldest woman to have given birth using reproductive technologies was about _______ years old.

A) 50
B) 57
C) 60
D) 65
E) 70

Question 73

In order for a problem with Rh incompatibility to arise, the

A) parents must both be Rh-positive.
B) mother must be Rh-negative and the father must be Rh-positive.
C) mother and father must both be Rh-negative and the fetus must be Rh-positive.
D) father must be Rh-negative and the mother must be Rh-positive.
E) parents must both have compromised immunity.

Question 74

In a(n) _______ pregnancy, the conceptus implants somewhere other than the uterus.

A) endoscopic
B) prolapsed
C) ectopic
D) exoplasmic
E) endometrial

Question 75

Which of the following may harm the fetus?

A) Horseback riding
B) An occasional glass of wine
C) Occasional long-distance air travel
D) Relaxing regularly in a hot tub
E) All of the above

Question 76

By around _______ month(s), a human pregnancy will continue without ovarian support.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) None of the above; hormones from the maternal ovaries are required throughout pregnancy.

Question 77

Which of the following contribute to pregnancy-related breast development?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin-like hormones
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 78

At term, a woman usually weighs between _______ pounds more than her pre-pregnancy weight.

A) 5-10
B) 10-20
C) 25-32
D) 20-35
E) 25-42

Question 79

Placental tissues can be harvested and analyzed using

A) chorionic villus sampling.
B) amniocentesis.
C) nuchal translucency test.
D) placenta previa.
E) MRI.

Question 80

Fluid collected in _______ may reveal elevated alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with _______.

A) chorionic villus sampling; Down syndrome
B) amniocentesis; spina bifida
C) chorionic villus sampling; limb defects
D) amniocentesis; abnormal genitalia
E) amniocentesis; congenital adrenal hyperplasia