Deck 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes

Question 1

Which of the following choices identifies the function(s) of the human skin?

A) thermoregulation
B) metabolism
C) removal of excess sugars
D) removal of excess salts

Answer 1

A,B,D

Question 2

How does the skin protect against microbial invasion?

A) It has a neutral pH
B) It has high moisture, low salt content
C) It is a thick physical barrier
D) It produces antimicrobial peptides.

Answer 2

C,D

Question 3

What type of skin cells make the skin waterproof, provides protection from abrasions, and protects against the entry of microorganisms?

A) melanocytes
B) keratinocytes
C) monocytes
D) erythrocytes

Answer 3

B

Question 4

How do pathogens evade the protection of human skin?

A) they secrete IgA protease
B) they alter host cell proteins
C) they produce capsules
D) microbiota may mutate resulting in antigenic drift

Question 5

Macules, papules, and vesicles are examples of skin lesions associated with

A) burns.
B) infectious rashes.
C) genetic disorders.
D) chemical rashes.

Question 6

Which species of microorganisms are not normally found to reside on or in the human skin?

A) Bacteroides
B) Propionibacterium
C) Haemophilus
D) Corynebacterium

Question 7

The Human Microbiome Project (HMP) discovered that

A) more microorganisms live on and in our skin than previously thought.
B) fewer microorganisms live on and in our skin than previously thought
C) most skin microbiota live as independent single organisms
D) most skin microbiota live on the surface of the skin

Question 8

What enzyme(s) is(are) produced by Staphylococcus aureus but is(are) not produced by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A) catalase
B) hemolysin
C) beta-lactamase
D) coagulase

Question 9

MRSA is a methicillin-resistant form of what common skin microorganism?

A) Streptococcus
B) Staphylococcus
C) Streptomyces
D) Salmonella

Question 10

Your patient reports with fever, swelling and a painful rash with clear, sharp borders on the upper thigh. Identify the probable disease.

A) necrotizing fasciitis
B) impetigo
C) erysipelas
D) cellulitis

Question 11

Which of the following correctly describes Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A) It is cocci
B) It is Gram- positive
C) It does not survive on dry skin
D) It has a capsule

Question 12

What is the most common etiological agent of gangrene?

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Proteus vulgaris

Question 13

What virulence factor does Clostridium perfringens produce that results in the tissue destruction seen in gangrene?

A) endotoxin
B) endospores
C) lactoferrin
D) lecithinase

Question 14

What is the most common skin disease in the United States?

A) eczema
B) psoriasis
C) acne
D) skin cancer

Question 15

Rank the following bacterial infections of the skin from most severe to least severe.

A) acne, erysipelas, necrotizing fasciitis
B) necrotizing fasciitis, acne, erysipelas
C) erysipelas, necrotizing fasciitis, acne
D) necrotizing fasciitis, erysipelas, acne

Question 16

Your patient, with no history of MMR vaccine, presents with a fever, a fine pink rash over the entire body and nasal congestion, No Koplik spots are observed. What is the likely diagnosis?

A) measles
B) chickenpox
C) mumps
D) rubella

Question 17

Which disease(s) does the MMR vaccine not protect against?

A) mumps
B) measles
C) malaria
D) rheumatic fever

Question 18

Which viral disease is characterized by an itchy vesicular rash erupting in waves?

A) mumps
B) chicken pox
C) measles
D) rubella

Question 19

Which viral disease is characterized by a confluent red macular/papular rash?

A) mumps
B) chicken pox
C) measles
D) rubella

Question 20

What is the etiological agent of Roseola?

A) parvovirus
B) coxsackievirus
C) human herpesvirus 6/7
D) human papilloma virus

Question 21

What disease does Coxsackievirus cause?

A) hand, foot, and mouth disease
B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
C) chickenpox
D) fifth disease

Question 22

The disease shingles is a reactivation of a latent _____________infection.

A) mumps
B) chickenpox
C) measles
D) rubella

Question 23

Shingles can be differentiated from chicken pox by which of the following?

A) The rash of shingles appears in a line along a nerve
B) The patient with shingles has a history of previous chicken pox infection
C) The patient with shingles is often older with a declining immune response
D) High fever is usually observed in a patient with shingles

Question 24

Warts are caused by different strains of which virus?

A) parvovirus
B) coxsackievirus
C) human herpesvirus 6/7
D) human papilloma virus

Question 25

Which type of warts are characterized by flattened bumps found on the face and hands?

A) flat warts
B) common warts
C) plantar warts
D) inguinal warts

Question 26

Which type of warts are characterized by growth on the bottom of feet?

A) flat warts
B) common warts
C) plantar warts
D) inguinal warts

Question 27

Which type of warts are characterized by cauliflower-like bumps found on the hands?

A) flat warts
B) common warts
C) plantar warts
D) inguinal warts

Question 28

Which statement(s) correctly describe warts?

A) They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV).
B) They are transmitted by direct contact.
C) They are frequently cancerous
D) There are currently no treatments available to remove warts

Question 29

What is the causative agent of smallpox?

A) varicella zoster virus.
B) variola virus.
C) coxsackievirus.
D) enterovirus.

Question 30

Where in the host does the smallpox virus initially replicate?

A) nasopharynx.
B) dermis.
C) lymph nodes.
D) skeletal muscle.

Question 31

Which public health strategy(ies) was (were) used to eradicate smallpox?

A) antibiotic treatment
B) testing
C) broad vaccine coverage
D) isolation of exposed individuals

Question 32

What group of microorganisms cause candidiasis?

A) viruses
B) bacteria
C) fungi
D) protozoans

Question 33

Candida spp. cause which two diseases of the skin?

A) oral thrush and candidasis
B) oral thrush and leishmaniasis
C) candidasis and leishmaniasis
D) leishmaniasis and lice

Question 34

Tinea, or ringworm, is caused by

A) protozoan
B) dermatophytes
C) arthropods
D) yeasts

Question 35

How is Leishmaniasis transmitted?

A) direct contact
B) vertical (mother to child) transmission
C) vector
D) indirect contact via fomite

Question 36

What stage of the Leishmania protozoan is transmitted to humans by the vector?

A) amastigote
B) endocyst
C) promastigote
D) endospore

Question 37

Pediculus humanus captis, Pediculus humanus corpis, and Pthirus pubis are all arthropods that cause what condition?

A) scabies
B) pediculosis
C) rickets
D) leishmaniasis

Question 38

5% permethrin cream is the most common treatment for which skin infection?

A) scabies
B) pediculosis
C) trachoma
D) leishmaniasis

Question 39

What are the innate defenses in the eye which protect against pathogens?

A) IgA
B) eyelashes
C) tears
D) eyebrows

Question 40

Which of the following are chemical defenses of the human eye against pathogens?

A) siderophores
B) NaCl concentration in tears
C) lactoferrin
D) lysozyme

Question 41

Conjunctivitis is typically caused by which group(s) of microorganisms?

A) algae
B) viruses
C) bacteria
D) protozoans

Question 42

Which of these statements apply to bacterial conjunctivitis? Select all that apply.

A) It is caused by more than one type of bacteria.
B) prevention is through good hand hygiene.
C) Redness, tearing, and discharge is a distinguishing feature.
D) Prevention may be through elimination of the vector.

Question 43

Which condition is characterized by Inflammation of the cornea of the eye along with intense pain, blurry vision and redness?

A) conjunctivitis
B) blepharitis
C) loiasis
D) keratitis

Question 44

Which phrase best describes Blepharitis?

A) inflammation of the clear tissue on the front of the eye (cornea)
B) inflammation of the eyelid that affects the eyelashes or tear production
C) inflammation or infection of the outer membrane of the eyeball and the inner eyelid
D) inflammation of the eyelash follicle

Question 45

How does acanthamoeba spp. enter the eye to produce keratitis?

A) during swimming
B) it is introduced via contaminated contact lens solution
C) vector introduction
D) parenteral introduction

Question 46

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of a black fly?

A) conjunctivitis
B) blepharitis
C) trichiasis
D) onchocerciasis

Question 47

What population is most often impacted by trachoma?

A) adolescents
B) infants
C) those >65 yo
D) populations lacking safe water and sanitation

Question 48

Which description best fits the etiological agent of trachoma?

A) Gram- positive, wall-less bacteria
B) Gram- positive, spirochete
C) Gram- negative, cocci
D) Gram- negative, pleomorphic, wall-less bacteria

Question 49

What is the mode of transmission of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A) mechanical vector transmission
B) respiratory droplets
C) contaminated fomites
D) biological vector transmission